2007-04-09 18:42:34 · 20 answers · asked by Koozie 5 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
lol, I was wondering something similar the other day. If you buy a piece of land, and a backhoe removes all the dirt down to the rock ledge, and moves the dirt somewhere else. then fills up the hole, is the land there still yours? or do you now own wherever your dirt went?
2007-04-09 18:48:16 · answer #1 · answered by Bek 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Any easement for the time of your land or below it would be recorded If the government needed to declare run a pipeline they'd would desire to tell you on your deed whether that's no longer pronounced on your deed you own all the rights to something below your land yet that doesn't provide you the staggering to dig say a 50 foot hollow on your land i understand an previous boy who has 2 oil wells in his small lower back backyard Like maximum Texans he properly no longer communicate approximately it yet he basically offered a $2 hundred,000 race horse
2016-12-15 21:03:42 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope..when you own a piece of land you only own the top...the government owns everything under the surface...like if you bought land and you find that there is a mineral or something underneath the surface that can be used the government has full and total rights to it and you dont...it sucks!!!
2007-04-09 18:46:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depends on where that land is. In the US - for instance - if you drilled down into your land quite a ways and struck oil - that oil would be yours. But (as I understand it) if you owned land in Canada or the UK - the mineral or oil rights would belong to the Crown.
2007-04-09 18:47:06 · answer #4 · answered by lyllyan 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They should, they are lucky sometimes to own a piece of land.
2007-04-09 18:46:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope unless they own the mineral rights along with the surface rights
2007-04-09 18:49:04 · answer #6 · answered by Roy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
And beyond...I own a small but significant patch of the Indian Ocean, if I'm reading this globe correctly.
2007-04-09 18:45:37 · answer #7 · answered by Tut Uncommon 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depends on what your deed says...I own a big chunk of land, i also own the mineral rights on my land...
2007-04-09 19:42:56 · answer #8 · answered by ABBYsMom 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
thats a really interesting question, i guess in theory they would but the world being round everything would come to an infinite point. so it would be like a thin slice of pie as where the deeper you went the width of property would decrease.
2007-04-09 18:47:59 · answer #9 · answered by benjamin 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
They have to own the mineral rights to the property as well if they want to own that.
Sadly, people have secured such rights.
2007-04-09 19:07:11 · answer #10 · answered by LORD Z 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋