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A person of the majority making a statement about a minority

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Don_Imus

or a person of the minority making a statement about another minority?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jesse_Jackson
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hymie

Should both?

And has Jesse Jackson apologized?

2007-04-09 16:13:27 · 2 answers · asked by The Cult of Personality 5 in Politics & Government Politics

2 answers

Jackson and his ilk are RACISTS.

That is pretty simple. Saying that I cannot call someone a name, albeit a racially tainted slur, is prohibiting my first amendment rights. Once they take those, all of the rest fall in place.

Congress is full of corrupt career politicians and until we have TERM LIMITS on those sorry sobs our country will continue to decline.

VOTE OUT INCUMBENTS, vote for the new guy who is not yet corrupted by the cesspool of DC, do it now, do it until we the people are once again represented in Congress.
'
Pelosi and her socialist buddies do not represent me, nor do they represent anyone except hardcore socialists. If this is what you want, fine, enjoy, but leave my rights alone or else.

2007-04-10 12:25:39 · answer #1 · answered by rmagedon 6 · 0 0

No one should be forced to apologize. If they want to apologize that is fine. If they do not, I do not think they should be forced to do so.

2007-04-10 09:39:22 · answer #2 · answered by gerafalop 7 · 0 0

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