2007-04-09 10:44:05 · 6 answers · asked by Bello Stella 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
XXX (30)
2007-04-09 10:48:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
B.C. counts down in years ie. B.C. 500, 499, 498 ... 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
A.D. counts up years 1, 2, 3, 4 , 5 .... 2005, 2006, 2007
NOTE: There is NO year 0 so one year after 1 B.C. is 1 A.D.
Sometime B.C. is called BCE (before common era)
So A.D. 38 to A.D. 68 is 30 years.
2007-04-09 17:57:54 · answer #2 · answered by Jerry 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
B.C. refers to the period of time called "Before Christ"
A.D. refers to the latin "Anno Domini" (i'm not 100 percent sure of that spelling) or in english "in the year of our Lord" anno = year Domini = dominion or one who has dominion.
So any year that is given an AD designation is refering to a time after the birth of Jesus Christ. The exact time and date are not available to us, in general most biblical scholars give the 1st century as a plus or minus 3 year leeway, at least thats what I have been taught.
Inclosing I sugest you try ask.com or wikipedia for further research.
al for now B
2007-04-09 17:56:23 · answer #3 · answered by ImJstBob 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A.D. is as we know it so 30years
B.C.is the same as minus on a temperature Gauge. So if someone was born in 68BC they would be 30 in 38 BC
2007-04-09 17:50:42 · answer #4 · answered by bigtaff51 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Uh, yeah, thats a difference of 30 years....
Thats confusing?
2007-04-09 17:47:10 · answer #5 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
30 years old.
duh.
2007-04-09 17:47:10 · answer #6 · answered by Jack Chedeville 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋