English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2007-04-09 01:18:09 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

7 answers

it is not defined, since "infinity" is not a non-null real number (the definition domain for the inverse function is R*).

however the limit of a/x (with a real, not null) when x tends to infinity, is 0 (+ or -, depending on the sign of a and of the "infinity").

2007-04-09 01:21:48 · answer #1 · answered by Eusebius 3 · 1 1

Infinity is a value all it's own. It's like asking "what is the value of one", except you can't really answer with something like .5 x 2 or 2-1. Infinity is a value that goes on forever. It always was and always will be. It never ends. Zero is a number a value of nothing.

2007-04-09 08:19:49 · answer #2 · answered by Mickey Mouse Spears 7 · 0 2

Infinity is the place where two parallel lines meet.
Thus infinities value is not defined.

2007-04-09 08:25:02 · answer #3 · answered by Jawad T 1 · 0 1

its 0

2007-04-09 08:40:34 · answer #4 · answered by Paranoid Android 2 · 0 1

It is infinetly small, an iota, but not zero

. The only thing which can be divided by something else to produce zero, is in fact zero.

2007-04-09 08:23:49 · answer #5 · answered by Hosebeast-ess to be 4 · 0 1

Yes, a/infinity is equal to zero as long as "a" is not equal to infinity itself. Then it is undefined.

2007-04-09 08:21:21 · answer #6 · answered by Blake Brannon 2 · 0 2

It would only be zero if a=0. Otherwise it is infinitesimally small

2007-04-09 08:22:03 · answer #7 · answered by Matthew P 4 · 0 2

fedest.com, questions and answers