2007-04-07 06:42:08 · 33 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
RE: "Jesus the Magician," Dr. Morton Smith.
According to the Jewish teachers of the first century Jesus was called, "Yeshua ben Pantera" Jesus son of Pantera. As Dr. Smith points out Pantera is not a middle eastern name. There was however however a Sardinian archer surnamed Pantera, a mercenary in the Roman army, serving in the middle east at about the time Mary would have conceived. There is no other by that name recorded. Lacking evidence to the contrary this soldier would be the most likely candidate for child support today. The bible proves Joseph was not the father and while the Christ might be the child of the Holy Spirit, Jesus would have been conceived as is any child is.
2007-04-07 07:48:04 · answer #1 · answered by Ray T 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus ben [son of] Joseph of Nazareth the Israelite.
Proper surnames didn't exist in the Middle East at the time. The Romans had a system where each person had a first name, a family name, and a clan name. True second names didn't emerge until the Middle Ages.
2007-04-07 06:46:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 7⤊ 0⤋
First century pagan philosophers spread it about that the Jesus of the gospels was in fact the illegitimate son of a roman officer (an attempt to counter the Virgin birth proof of divinity). If true, his name would have ben Yeshua Ben Pantera.
Other posters will have noted that within Palestine he would have been known a "Son of Joseph".
2007-04-07 07:03:44 · answer #3 · answered by Andrew H 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
People didn't have second names back then. To distinguish between people with the same name, people said things like Jesus of Nazareth, Jesus the carpenter, Jesus son of Joseph, etc.
That's why a lot of modern surnames are occupations.
2007-04-07 06:44:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 7⤊ 0⤋
Yeshua ben Yoseph = Jesus son of Joseph
2007-04-07 06:45:57 · answer #5 · answered by † H20andspirit 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Jesus Christ, upon reflection it is obvious, although I was going to suggest that early surnames related to either whose son they were, or their work.
'Christ' does seem to take on a meaning of itself, but his name is clearly stated in the English versions of the new testament.
It should be pointed out though that 'Jesus Christ' is the English translation of his original name.
Further research suggests that the word 'Christ' is an English Translation of a word meaning 'Messiah', thus it wasn't his early surname.
The angel apparently told Joseph to call Mary's son Jesus which meant 'Saviour'. However according to the old testament Isaiah VII 14 he was supposed to be called Immanuel meaning 'God is with us' It all gets very confusing, as if the Bible tries to blind us with its contradictions.
2007-04-07 06:56:11 · answer #6 · answered by FairyBlessed 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Jesus didn't have a second name. It would be like you would be Paula daughter of (Insert your Father's name)
2007-04-07 06:45:18 · answer #7 · answered by Gerrard F 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is not his correct name. It was Yahshuah. Back then people didn't have two names. They were just "Name, son of..." or "Name, tribe of...". So he would have been called Yahshuah ben Yosef or Yahshuah of Yahudah.
2007-04-07 06:49:56 · answer #8 · answered by Luvly 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus has lots of different second names as people call him:
Christ
King of Nazareth
Son of god
Son ben(son of)Nazareth/etc
2007-04-07 06:48:19 · answer #9 · answered by Lovebug 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
He didn't have a last name like we do. His name was Yeshua ben Yosef (Jesus son of Joseph).
2007-04-07 06:45:18 · answer #10 · answered by tonks_op 7 · 6⤊ 0⤋