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Given that there already exists "a mi hermano". Why do I need to include the pronoun also? Is there some rule about this?
Thanks.

2007-04-07 03:59:14 · 6 answers · asked by larmac 2 in Society & Culture Languages

6 answers

First of all, it should be "Voy a dárselo/dársela a mi hermano" (dárselo if the direct object is a thing with male gender in Spanish, darsela if it is female, for instance: "Voy a darle la sopa a mi hermano = voy a dársela a mi hermano. Voy a darle el suéter a mi hermano = voy a dárselo"). Spanish speakers don't say "dársele" in this context. The direct object in that sentence is not the "se" pronoun included in the word "dárselo", it is, in fact, the indirect object.
The direct object is the pronoun "lo", referred to something (usually things, not people, except for its use with some specific verbs). The indirect object "se" appears twice thanks to something some scholars call "double pronominalization". It is used to avoid some "impossible sequences" in the Spanish language, according to its grammar rules. It also comes from the ancient ways of conjugating Latin (whose patterns are very similar to those we know in Spanish at this moment). It is considered redundant, but acceptable, and if it is somehow difficult there's always the choice of paraphrasing the sentence.
Hope it was helpful... ;)

2007-04-07 05:03:30 · answer #1 · answered by Smurfette 3 · 4 1

Voy a darle a mi hermano.. = i m going to give my brother..
Voy a darselo a mi hermano= I m going to give IT to my brother

"se" it s the pronoun "it"

2007-04-07 11:31:57 · answer #2 · answered by Jassy 7 · 1 0

Voy a dárselo a mi hermano = I will give it to my brother.

Se is used here for "it".

2007-04-07 15:08:37 · answer #3 · answered by Martha P 7 · 0 0

I see your point... but that's the way it is.

By the way, it's "dárselo".

Let's put it this way:

Voy a dárselo = Se lo voy a dar.
to who??; a mi hermano.

Got it??

2007-04-07 11:18:21 · answer #4 · answered by rtorto 5 · 1 1

Yes, the rule is that that is how it works in Spanish. Every language has its own grammar, This is part of Spanish. There is no "reason" for it other than its own existence.

2007-04-07 11:06:04 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

in spanish there s alot of diference when you say:

I'm going to give to him

than

I'm going to give it to my brother.

Im spanish you have to specify "WHO" because or grammar stuff

2007-04-07 14:30:41 · answer #6 · answered by shkauclkl 2 · 0 0

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