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2007-04-06 13:28:14 · 17 answers · asked by 641240513 1 in Politics & Government Military

17 answers

The German invasion of Poland...

2007-04-06 13:31:52 · answer #1 · answered by fitzovich 7 · 2 0

because they were allies with the French, and they threatened to enter if Germany invaded Czechoslovakia and they had to stand by that promise. and, hello, Germany was right across the dammn strait from merry ole england! and the German's kicked British butt at Dunkirk. and the germans began the Battle of Brtiain, a huge air campaign for the skies over England that pitted the RAF against the Luftwaffe, 1939-1940.

2007-04-06 14:07:09 · answer #2 · answered by F-14D 2 · 0 0

Becuase France was being invaded and Britain must do something so stop this invasion only till when the US comes to help the British liberated France

2007-04-06 14:44:02 · answer #3 · answered by linkinicarus273 2 · 0 0

Don't they teach HISTORY in High School any longer ?

Britain had flaked out of their treaty obligations (PM Chamberlain) with Poland when Germany invaded. But DID have troops on the Continent when Germany invaded France, and followed their treaty obligations with FRANCE (PM Churchill).

2007-04-06 13:44:45 · answer #4 · answered by mariner31 7 · 0 0

It relies upon on how in touch you mean. in case you mean on no account by ability of the U. S. then there's a reliable possibility that Britain would desire to have fallen to Germany (conflict cloth no longer being sent/lent/loaned/etc to Britain by ability of the united states of a). additionally what could have got here approximately if Japan had desperate to no longer attack the united states of a, yet incredibly invade Russia after Germany had. could Russia have been waiting to tug off a 2 front conflict without help? undergo in techniques assorted the elite troops on the Pacific front in Russia have been pulled and sent to the eu front. Its a stressful what if question to answer. the U. S. provided very plenty in terms of equipment, materials of all varieties to Britain and Russia. assorted historians think of the Allies gained WW2 because of the fact they have been waiting to outproduce the Axis. could they have been waiting to without the united states of a? i do no longer think of so, think of of the united states of a as a huge production facility that would no longer be attacked competently producing incredibly a lot of conflict supplies for the Allied reason. additionally undergo in techniques that Britain and Russia did no longer do plenty against Japan for many the conflict. The Pacific conflict replaced into mostly Japan vs the united states of a/Australia/New Zealand. the united states of a did no longer win the conflict on my own, nor replaced into the conflict over by ability of the time the united states of a have been given in touch, the two are misguided. If the conflict replaced into tremendously plenty over while the U. S. have been given formally in touch then Churchill does no longer have been so happy approximately it.

2016-11-07 10:18:53 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because Germany invaded Poland.

2007-04-06 13:32:04 · answer #6 · answered by Chris D 2 · 1 0

Because Fascism was spreading across Europe.

2007-04-06 13:30:43 · answer #7 · answered by misskate12001 6 · 0 0

Could be because, Germany conned Chamberlain.

2007-04-06 13:32:34 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

How could they not? The way Hitler was going it was only a matter of time.

2007-04-06 13:32:00 · answer #9 · answered by ronnny 7 · 0 0

You have to do a little History work.

Hitler's goal was too destroy all of Europe.

That's why!

2007-04-06 13:45:52 · answer #10 · answered by bob P11 3 · 0 0

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