Why are women in islam and during the prophet's time treated equally unlike other religion and any other time in any other culture?
I know this will get people angry, but if you disagree, IM me and bring it on.
2007-04-05 16:59:41 · 11 answers · asked by DBznut 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I don't know. You're the second person I have discussed this glitch with. I'm not sure if it's just in the R&S section. Maybe you should take up the glitch with the Yahoo tech side?
2007-04-06 12:25:09 · answer #1 · answered by Babs 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You ignore the Egyptians treated women as equal. The Jewish laws support the equality of women. This only mentioning two of many cultures. You have not researched history very well.
2007-04-06 00:03:20 · answer #2 · answered by kaehya2003 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Where pray tell did you get any information that indicates that women are equal in the Muslim culture?
If you can quote from the Quran or from the book of Mohamed anything that even hints at that conclusion I would be very much interested in hearing or reading it.
2007-04-06 00:04:20 · answer #3 · answered by Poohcat1 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Teated EQUALLY? You must be jesting. Look what the holy Quran has to say on the matter of equality of the sexes:
"Men are in charge of women, because Allah hath made the one of them to excel the other, and because they spend of their property (for the support of women). So good women are the obedient, guarding in secret that which Allah hath guarded. As for those from whom ye fear rebellion, admonish them and banish them to beds apart, and scourge them." (4:34)
Women's testimony is equal to half that of a man:
"Get two witnesses, out of your own men, and if there are not two men, then a man and two women, such as ye choose, for witnesses, so that if one of them errs, the other can remind her." (2:282)
Polygyny, and sex with slave and captive women:
"If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with the orphans, marry women of your choice, two or three or four; but if ye fear that ye shall not be fable to deal justly (with them), then only one, or (a captive) that your right hands possess, that will be more suitable." (4:3)
2007-04-06 05:54:22 · answer #4 · answered by Ivri_Anokhi 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Cause the Quran is the only book where men and women are addressed as being equal in the eyes of God except in devoutness?
And the best of men is said to be the best to his wife?
And knowledge was made obligatory for EVERYONE in Islam so that meant children should be educated regardless of their sex?
And to be able to marry you dont need anyones approval?
And when youre about to marry, Islaam made it obligatory for the man to pay a marriage gift of a sum of money to the bride so she may use it as she wishes in her marriage?
2007-04-06 00:03:57 · answer #5 · answered by Antares 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The Qur'an says it is okay for a man to marry one, two, or three wives, but not four. Do women have the same right?
2007-04-06 00:04:53 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was probably reported ...???... but I don't see why.
But to answer... Perhaps the early parity with men was because Mohammad hadn't finished making all of his oppressive rules against women.... or you are more than likely incorrect in your belief.
[][][] r u randy? [][][]
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2007-04-06 00:05:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Are you saying they are treated equally or "unequally"?
2007-04-06 00:02:48 · answer #8 · answered by CALAVA 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
reform your question to be answered intelligently. or to be answered properly.
I could not understand your question. Make it to be understood.
jtm
2007-04-06 00:11:52 · answer #9 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why didnt it get posted?
because of YahooReportNazis.
like they deleted my good question :(
2007-04-06 00:04:43 · answer #10 · answered by uhohspaghettiohohs 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋