42) Is scripture inspired by God? "all scripture is given by inspiration of God." 2 Timothy 3:16 compared to: "But I speak this by permission and not by commandment." 1 Corinthians 7:6 "But to the rest speak I, not the Lord." 1 Corinthians 7:12 "That which I speak, I speak it not after the Lord" 2 Corinthians.
2007-04-04 18:19:13 · 29 answers · asked by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Well I think the part where Paul is instructing someone to bring a cloak that he left behind is probably not divinely inspired.
Also, Paul only wrote about four of the letters attributed to him.
You will notice that Paul appears to be suffering from schizophrenia, but I think this is how letters look when others mutilate them.
Furthermore, if “all scripture is given by inspiration of God” then that would include the gnostic scriptures, so why aren’t they in the bible? Remember, at the time Timothy was written there was no bible, so how do you know what is or what is not “scripture”?
2007-04-04 18:25:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
The answer is in the Scripture you quote. In some cases Paul is speaking by permission and not by commandment.
It works somewhat like the post of an ambassador. You may carry a specific word from one country to another, a commandment, but you are also free to speak having been intrusted with the interests of the kingdom you represent.
If God ever speaks to you, you will know the difference. When God speaks it comes complete with the punctuation marks. Not only did Paul know the difference but so did many of the people who were going to receive the letter.
2007-04-05 21:56:11 · answer #2 · answered by Tommy 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Paul writes this because he wrote this, asking the Lord first, if it is OK. The Lord gave him the OK to. It wasn't a direct word from the Lord.
When Paul heard something to speak directly from the Lord, it is the Lord. When Paul just knew something in His Spirit, then He would ask God for confirmation in His Spirit, & that would be the persmission. It depends on if one is speaking under the anointing or not.
This was something Paul had learned from God, but it wasn't a direct Word of God that sometimes is spoken under the anointing & the Prophet speaks when the Spirit speaks through them the direct Word from the Lord.
Also there is different anointing for different callings to the 5 fold ministry. So, Paul was operating as a teacher at the time of this. The Lord has called some to be Apostles, Prophets, Evangelists, Pastors & Teachers. Though, Paul was mostly an Apostle operating under that gift, born out of season.
2007-04-05 05:17:43 · answer #3 · answered by t_a_m_i_l 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I'm glad you know quite a bit of the bible and I suppose this is just an enquiry. To those of you who don't believe in God, I challenge you to ask God to show Himself real to you. You won't lose anything, it's either you get an answer or you don't. If you don't dare to ask, face it, you DO believe in existence of God. Nobody could create life, even the scientists can't.
Paul's actions and words are derived from the conviction by the Holy Spirit, who is part of the Trinity (that means Holy Spirit is God), hence even when he said "But to the rest speak I, not the Lord", it is still from God.
2007-04-04 18:32:10 · answer #4 · answered by Yuki 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
This was a man who was often in Jesus presence in visions. He was told by God to say a lot of things. Some he done just knowing the lords views not by commandment. But yes he was always speaking for the Lord. His words are as if the Lord himself had spoken them.
2007-04-04 18:33:04 · answer #5 · answered by saintrose 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The apostle Paul was addressing a situation in the church Christian believers had started marrying unbelievers. In the Law of Moses to marry a unbeliever was considered a sin and you could be put to death for it. It was in the commandment of Moses. However, when Jesus Christ came the curse which came with the Law of Moses was taken away and grace was ushered in. Since, we are now under the covenant of grace the command in the Old Testament no longer applies to those Christians who have married a unbeliever. This is why Paul says, I speak by permission ( or by permission of the Holy Spirit) and not by commandment of what was in the Law of Moses. But you have to remember even in 1 Cor 7:6 Pauls says, "But to the rest speak I, not the Lord". He is still dealing with the context of what was in the Law of Moses. When Paul says, ".....not the Lord". He is making reference to the Lord's commandments in the Law of Moses. There were things in the Law of Moses which did not cover what Paul was addressing because it was unlawful. So, Paul is still talking by the wisdom of God, under the permission of the Holy Spirit. Once again, you could not have a unbelieveing husband or wife under the Law of Moses. But under the covenant of grace, if you did get one, you had to know the rules by which to govern your life concerning living with unbelievers. It was not the will of God to for Christians to marry unbelievers, but when Paul got to the Corinthian church, some believers had already followed their own hearts and disobeyed God. So Paul was basically saying now that you followed you own hearts, you are bound by whatever you have to put up with concerning that unbeliever. They can be unfaithful because they are sinners. But you have to be faithful because you are children of God.
2007-04-04 20:17:26 · answer #6 · answered by super saiyan 3 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Scripture is a record of the words of the Lord. Paul was making it clear that he was not recording scripture. He was letting the reader know that what he was writing was his own opinion.
I don't see this as a contradiction or even a problem. In gospel discussions, I am careful to say when I am giving my opinion, as opposed to scripture.
2007-04-04 18:28:15 · answer #7 · answered by Free To Be Me 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
2 Timothy is talking about Paul's charge to Timothy.
1 Corinthians 7 is talking about marriage
2007-04-04 18:27:04 · answer #8 · answered by tracy211968 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Although I think the Spirit was still inspiring HIm, not God was. For instance, Paul said that he(not God) wishes that all would remain as he was. He was unmarried. Of course we know that God says that a man and a woman can be given to each other in marriage. Instances like that. May God Bless U.
2007-04-04 18:24:19 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
YES he was in Christ, in His Name and if you are born again you are in Christ and speaking God's words. You have the mind of Christ. The love of God has been shed abroad in your heart. The word is nigh you in your mouth and on your lips. The law is written on your heart and inscribed on your mind and the Holy Ghost has been difused throughout your soul. You are wall to wall Holy Ghost. You speak His words at all times but do you speak them in faith or fear.
2007-04-04 18:37:03 · answer #10 · answered by son of God 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋