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Or is she just asking inquisitive questions? Can anyone point me to a scripture in which Jesus responded to a question by insulting and threatening the asker?

2007-04-04 16:32:26 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

5 answers

They just wish she would go away and stop challenging their minds.

Thanks, by the way.

2007-04-04 16:41:29 · answer #1 · answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 · 1 0

No, but unfortunately inquisitive questions seem to generate the most insults. I like her questions as well as some of the others who post in this section.

2007-04-04 23:59:19 · answer #2 · answered by buttercup 5 · 1 0

It's a valid question, and I can give an answer: God promised that we would have His Word, and today, the King James Bible is the Word of God in English.

To say that we don't have a perfect Bible is to call God a liar. Surely, if He wants us to come to Him, He would make sure that His Word is available, right?

2007-04-04 23:40:35 · answer #3 · answered by ? 6 · 0 0

No, Jesus never insulted anyone. And the only thing he ever threatened was devils.

2007-04-04 23:39:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

here is an example of Jesus saying bad things:

MARK 7: Pharisees and the scribes asked him, “Why do your disciples not walk according to the tradition of the elders, but eat their bread with impure hands?” And he said to them, “Rightly did Isaiah prophesy of you hypocrites, as it is written, “This people honors me with their lips, but their heart is far away from me, but in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the precepts of men.” (Is. 29:13). “Neglecting the commandment of G-d, you hold to the tradition of men.”
This begins as an innocent visit by the Pharisees to the students of Jesus. Nowhere is there implied any maliciousness on behalf of the Pharisees. But when the Pharisees see Jesus’s disciples violating a principle of the Rabbis, they ask, isn’t it written, “According to the teaching that they will teach you and according to the judgment that they will say to you, shall you do, you shall not deviate from the word that they will tell you, right or left.” (Deut 17).
(A principle also supported by Jesus: Matt. 23:2-3, “The scribes and Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat; therefore all that they tell you do and observe.”)
The Pharisees and the scribes asked him, “Why do your disciples not walk according to the tradition of the elders, but eat their bread with impure hands?” Here Jesus is given an opportunity to appropriately respond by accepting admonishment and by correcting his ways and the ways of his disciples. But, instead of doing what Torah law demands, he goes on the offensive against G-d’s holy servants. Jesus strikes out against them by calling them hypocrites. But why? What? The story in Mark does not reveal any hint of hypocrisy on behalf of the Rabbis. Jesus was asked a simple question, and replied with an attack.
Jesus continues by quoting a verse from Isaiah to validate his point in condemning the Rabbis. But if the verse in Isaiah is looked at within its context, it is obvious that the verse has nothing to do with what Jesus is talking about. He doesn’t even quote it correctly.

Jesus says “Neglecting the commandment of G-d, you hold to the tradition of men”, but the commandments of G-d they are neglecting aren’t even mentioned.

Matt. 23:23-33:
“Woe to you scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites. You blind guides . . .they are full of
robbery and self-indulgence. . . You blind Pharisee . . .For you are like whitewashed
tombs which on the outside appear beautiful but inside they are full of dead men’s bones
and all uncleanliness. Even so you too outwardly appear righteous to men, but inwardly
you are full of hypocrisy and lawlessness. . . . You serpents, you brood of vipers.”
What kind of speaking is this? Why is he saying such things about a huge number of people, most of whom he never met?
What happened to “According to the teaching that they will teach you and according
to the judgment that they will say to you, shall you do, you shall not deviate from the
word that they will tell you, right or left.” (Deut. 17)?
What about love your neighbor as yourself? (Lev. 19:18, Matt. 22:39)
His attack against the Pharisees violates both of these as well as these
other Biblical laws.
You shall not go up and down as a talebearer among your people.
You shall not hate your brother in your heart.
You shall not bear a grudge against the children of your people. (Lev. 19:17-18)

Matt.12:18 says that Jesus fulfills the “prophecy” which says: “he will proclaim
justice to the Gentiles.” Verse 21: “and in his name the Gentiles will hope”.
The Christian Bible tries to present Jesus as the salvation of the Gentiles.
But Jesus, himself, had his own ideas about Gentiles.
Matt. 15:22-27:
“And behold, a Canaanite woman came out from that region, and began to cry out,
saying, “Have mercy on me … but he did not answer her a word ... she came and
began to bow down before him saying, “lord help me”. And he answered and said, “it is
not good to take the children’s bread and throw it to the dogs.”
This poor woman came to a man she thought would help her and he called her a dog! Why?
There are other occasions he says racist things about gentiles.
“And when you are praying, do not use meaningless repetition as the Gentiles do…”
(Matt.6:7)
Isn’t this a rude thing to say? Do all Gentiles use “meaningless repetition” when
praying? If Jesus wanted to condemn meaningless repetition in prayer, why didn’t he say so? Why did he have to say “as the Gentiles do”?

that's all i can come up with now. there's also the thing about turning away his own mother on certain occasions, but i'm tires. maybe i will add it later.

2007-04-06 01:46:56 · answer #5 · answered by boring 1 · 0 1

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