They heard the voice.....they did not see the light like Paul did
Paul was the one who was blinded by the glory of God....not his traveling companions.
Luke apparently penned it differently then Paul explained it.
2007-04-04 01:15:26
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answer #1
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answered by primoa1970 7
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In Acts 9:7 Look very close how I say this, And the men which journeyed with him stood speehless, hearing a voice, But seeing NO MAN. Now Acts 22:9 And they that were with me saw indeed the light & were afraid, but they heard not the voice of him that spake to me. Now what is Paul really saying, Back up to Acts 9: 6 Paul heard the voice & knew what was said to him, the people that was with him did not hear what the voice said, but they did hear a voice, Have you ever heard someone talk & yet did not know what they said, Now go back to Acts 22:9 Paul is confirming that those with him did not hear the words of the voice, In other words, they heard something, but they did not know what was told to Paul.
2007-04-04 08:28:48
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answer #2
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answered by birdsflies 7
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An example where literal hearing of a sound and hearing with understanding are contrasted is found in the account of the conversion of Saul of Tarsus and his own recounting of it later. (Ac 9:3-8; 22:6-11) The account at Acts 9:7 says that the men with Saul heard “a voice” (KJ) or “the sound of a voice.” (NW) Yet, as recorded at Acts 22:9, Paul (Saul) says that the men with him did not hear the voice. When what was said in the two verses is properly understood, there is no contradiction. The Greek word for “voice” (pho‧ne′) at Acts 9:7 is in the genitive case (pho‧nes′) and gives, in this verse, the sense of hearing of a voice—hearing the sound but not understanding. At Acts 22:9 pho‧ne′ is in the accusative case (pho‧nen′): the men “did not hear the voice”—they heard the sound of a voice but did not get the words, the meaning; they did not understand what Jesus was saying to Saul, as Saul did. (Ac 9:4) This knowledge of the Bible’s use of the idea of ‘hearing’ in both senses helps to clear up what would otherwise seem to be discrepancies.
2007-04-04 08:21:12
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answer #3
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answered by papa G 6
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Act 9:7 was the statement of the spectator recorded by Luke.
Act.22:9 was stated by Saul himself, in accordance to what he experienced. The discrepancy is understandable.
It is possible that Luke purposely recorded the two passages with discrepancy as a riddle for the careless readers. He caught you there!
2007-04-04 10:13:55
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answer #4
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answered by amsops 3
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In my Saul to Paul experience I heard a small still voice that came from within that said "I have something better for you." I was at rock bottom with demonic voices telling me I was no f...in good and to kill myself. They were surrounding me from the outside as I laid there defenseless when that small still voice over-powered Satan and his evil. There was NO DOUBT in my whole being that it was the Holy Spirit!
Great question
God Bless You!
2007-04-04 09:38:41
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answer #5
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answered by JOHN 7
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Apparently they saw and heard enough to believe Paul/Saul's conversion ... but they did not get enough of it to understand what was said.
2007-04-04 08:23:53
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answer #6
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answered by arewethereyet 7
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I guess they weren't schizophrenic like him
2007-04-04 08:17:45
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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i wonder if god intentionally blind paul?
2007-04-04 08:21:35
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answer #8
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answered by lnfrared Loaf 6
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