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Why hasn't the Bible been transmitted to us in perfect condition if it is so important and if God had his supernatural hand in it? Why did both Israel and the church add interpolations, emend, and conflate the texts?

2007-04-03 16:11:11 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

The Dead Sea Scrolls prove that the Tanach (your OT) remains true to the words written over 2000 years ago. Visit the exhibit in San Diego this summer to verify it for yourself!
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2007-04-03 18:17:56 · answer #1 · answered by Hatikvah 7 · 0 0

If you are reading it in English which I assume you are it is a translation. Many texts need explanation from scholars who can read Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek. It isn't easy to translate from the original language into English, keep the original meaning and make it readable. I heard a Christian of Lebanese origin say Middle Eastern people use speech idioms. He said Jesus was no exception. He said their language was similar to Aramaic.
Also the English language has gone through changes. England being a island in the northern
Atlantic has been conquered over the centuries by many. The original people were Celtic, then the Romans came and brought Latin, then Germanic Anglo,Saxons,and Jutes came, after than it was the Danes, then those tall dark French speaking Vikings called Normans. All of these groups have left their mark on the English language and I have heard it said that it is really a mongrel language. You have some words that can mean more than one thing depending how you use the word and more than one word to mean the same thing.
I said something about a Bible reading and used the name John the Baptiser. I was corrected that it should be John the Baptist. Well neither word was used in the original. A word in the original Aramaic was used that simply meant "one who baptises." So that is why you can have many translations.
The King James Version will have an identification in it that it is the "Authorized Version." That was because it was authorized by King James I of England for his subjects.

2007-04-03 23:39:54 · answer #2 · answered by Shirley T 7 · 0 0

What proof do you have that Israel added stuff in there? I would like to know. Because the Jews have a very stringent set of rules for copying the books. Errors are not allowed.

Jewish people have the Oral Law - which is an expanded and explained set of teachings on the Law. Perhaps this is what you are thinking of?

No one can prove that the bible has been altered without a doubt. Mostly since we do not have the texts to show it. We do have other historical manuscripts from that time that paint a very different picture from what the bible shows us. But we do not have proof that the bible itself was actually changed throughout history - especially in a major way as some claim.

2007-04-03 23:18:57 · answer #3 · answered by noncrazed 4 · 0 0

The Bible comes from oral stories eventually written down.

Religious leaders decided what to keep and what not to keep.

Political leaders appointed religous people to decide what to keep and what not too keep, however it's Good to be the King so who would go up against a King!

Greek, Hebrew, Latin and Aramatic spoken in 1 AD or 100 BC is different from today and NO ONE knows exactly how to interpret 100 BC coloquial whatever

We can only speculate

And while were at it, why did a committee of Scientists decide to DEMOTE Pluto.

What GIVES THEM THE RIGHT

Pluto is in an orbit, a solid orbit. It is not in an asteroid field like Cereus.

What Gives a few scientists, who are opposed by a few scientists, the RIGHT to say PLUTO is no longer a planet.

Can we agree PLUTO is an orbiting body.

If or IF NOT it is a planet should be up to each individual to decide. Not some SCIENTFIC committee that throws out what was taught to people from 1940 to 2006

Kind of make us look like Stupid Fools

Kind of makes the school system look stupid

Like when the school system taught the FLAT EARTH theory.

I, personally, have to go through this trauma brought on by a group of EGG heads who can't, 100%, decide

If there is no GOD why do Scientists play GOD and DECIDE for everyone what IS and WHAT ISN'T!

Shouldn't the INDIVIDUAL decide what to believe and what not to believe or ARE WE MOO COWS lead by the Pope or the Scientist.

What makes the Scientist or Pope better than the other fellow.

WHO decides WHAT to BRAIN WASH our kids with.

I was BRAIN WASHED to believe PLUTO WAS A PLANET

Today's kids are BRAIN WASHED to believe it isn't!

What ever happened to FREE THINKING.

The Scientists and the Religious have DECIDED FOR US what to believe in.

It's that simple.

You and I have no say. We MUST follow what THEY SAY.

THEY are ALWAYS RIGHT

THEY have the RIGHT to change their minds

WE must follow.

Go read Orwell, double speak.

2007-04-03 23:21:48 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

2 Tim 3:16-17 All scripture is inspired of God....
Jehovah God's word is perfect. Religion today has watered down God's word with traditions and have went beyond the things that were written. The Apostle Paul was inspired to write, do not go beyond the things that are written. Anyone can read the Bible and find the truth. I have applied the scriptures in my life and I am a happier person, a better Husband, and Father. The wisdom in the bible is the best wisdom today.

2007-04-03 23:25:15 · answer #5 · answered by Jason W 4 · 0 0

With all due respect, you are mistaken.
Please look into the history of the Masoretes.
Discover the value of the Dead Sea Scrolls.
You will no longer think of interpolations, emendments and conflategrations.

2007-04-03 23:16:59 · answer #6 · answered by Uncle Thesis 7 · 0 0

Let us discuss the Bible. You look at Eastern Orthodoxy and see many things Orthodox Christians do and believe which are not specifically mentioned in the Bible. You then wonder how we can justify doing and believing these things. This discrepancy exists because the Orthodox accept other authorities as sources of Truth in addition to the Bible. But before I explain about these other authorities, I wish to research this belief in the Bible. When I first began to study Orthodoxy, I was bothered by the question, why should I believe that the Bible is the Word of God? Why should it contain the books that it does? Why not other books, or should all those it includes be there?

You see, I discovered that the Christians of the first several centuries had differences of opinion as to which books of Scripture were from God and which were writings of mere men (perhaps holy, wise men, or perhaps false and heretical books, but nevertheless not divinely inspired writings). For example, even in 300 A.D. there were questions about the validity of the books of James, II Peter, II and III John and a definite division of opinion about the Apocalypse (the Revelation of John). There was a book called the Gospel according to Peter in existence. There is the letter called the Didache, which is the letter from the first century sent by the Apostles after they met in council at Jerusalem (see Acts 15:1-32). There are letters from Sts. Polycarp and Ignatius, disciples of St. John the Apostle, just as Sts. Mark, Matthew and Luke were disciples of various of the Twelve Apostles-and yet those three gospels were included in the Bible but not the letters of Sts. Polycarp or Ignatius. Yet I have read their writings and do not think that they were denied admittance to Holy Scripture because they were strange or because the authorship was doubted; rather they seem very good and holy letters, yet they are not regarded as Scripture. And these are just some of the books and letters which might have been considered Holy Scripture. So who judges which books are human and which divine?

Historically, I can tell you that the reason you read and revere the collection of books known as the Bible is because of the decisions of church councils which were held to decide this issue (in addition to other issues). Local councils were held in 58-65?, 364, and 419, and councils of the whole church took place in 691 and 787 A.D. They made their decisions which together with the Church’s confirmation and emendation became the established Word of God. Much later, when the Protestants rebelled against and separated from the Roman Catholics (1400 A.D. on) they kept most of the doctrine about Scripture even though they discarded many other doctrines. Thus you were taught that these books are the Bible, God’s communication to mankind. This is historically why Protestants believe the Bible to be God’s Word.

So it was these councils which decided with the Church’s approval what constituted Holy Scripture. What criteria did they use? Basically, there were two criteria: (1) who wrote the book (and how certain it was that the alleged authorship was valid), and (2) whether or not the teachings of the book agreed with apostolic tradition (also called Holy Tradition). I do not imagine that you would object to the first criterion. As for the second, in the early Church the canon of Scripture was not completely set-heresies were rampant and the Church was often in turmoil. Some people invented strange new doctrines and terrible heresies and started their own "churches," seeking to deceive if possible even the elect (Matt. 24:24). These heretics would sometimes write their own pseudo-apostolic books to try to lure the faithful away from the true Church. Therefore, Christians had to judge the correct way to believe and act by the oral as well as by the written teachings of the apostles as they were passed from one generation to another. For the apostles taught that Christians were to obey all that they taught whether by word or letter. St. Paul writes, Therefore brethren, stand fast and hold to the traditions which you have been taught, whether by word or our letter (II Thess. 2:15); Now I praise you, brethren,... that you keep the traditions as I delivered them to you (I Cor. 11:2); and, The things you have learned, and received, and heard, and seen in me, practice these things (Phil. 4:9). Some would argue that these oral traditions were ultimately included in one or more of the writings of the New Testament. If this were so, then why would God leave us these purposeless instructions in Holy Scripture? These three verses would then be totally superfluous. No, these verses must refer to teachings of the apostles given in unrecorded sermons, as well as to the lessons taught by their manner of living. It is in accordance with these traditions that the validity of the books was judged.

These were the criteria used. Now what about the method used to determine the contents of the Bible-a council of bishops meeting to judge a doctrinal issue? This is the very method the apostles taught should be used, and the Bible itself bears witness to this.

In Acts 15:1-32, we are told there was a doctrinal dispute over whether Gentile Christians should have to follow the Jewish rites. The apostles met and decided they should not and sent a letter to all the Churches informing them of their decision. Thus a doctrinal dispute was judged by a council of the apostles. "But that council" you may say, "was composed of apostles. What entitles bishops to do this?" It is historically certain that the apostles taught that the bishops they set up in each city were to do the work that they themselves had been doing; that is, the bishop should preside over the services, appoint elders (presbyters or priests) in each church, consecrate the people chosen to be deacons, and to meet in councils to decide doctrinal and other disputes, etc. Thus when a doctrinal dispute arose, bishops would gather to decide the issue. This is-the tradition we have and follow. This is the foundation for believing that councils are an authority Christians must obey. This authority is established by Scripture and attests to the validity of the Scriptures. It is established by God to winnow the wheat from the chaff of new problems, questions and heresies.

The Old Testament canon of Scripture is that of the Septuagint, which was the Bible of the apostles. Other Christian communions through the years have deviated somewhat from this apostolic canon which the Orthodox Church still uses. The canon of the New Testament was developed over the early centuries of the Church. Its first known listing in its final form is the Paschal Letter of St. Athanasius of Alexandria in A.D. 367.

2007-04-04 23:02:08 · answer #7 · answered by ladderofdivine 2 · 0 0

The Bible we have now is the Bible Jesus confirmed. The Bible has not changed. Jesus also promised the New Testament. The Bible in your hands is God talking to you. : )

2007-04-03 23:16:33 · answer #8 · answered by SeeTheLight 7 · 1 1

Satan has decieved you the KJV is exactly the way God wanted it and exactly the way it is suppose to be.

If you don't have the word you have no foundation and Satan knows that.

2007-04-03 23:17:52 · answer #9 · answered by wisdom 4 · 0 0

Because the men that wrote it (for god) were not perfect .

2007-04-03 23:17:03 · answer #10 · answered by LadyCatherine 7 · 0 0

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