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Many Protestants keep telling me that "ALL have sinned" (Romans 3:23; emphasis on *ALL*). Some tell me this includes babies, while others tell me that babies are not capable of sin (see links). Is it possible that Romans 3:23 should not be taken so literally? Should it be understood figuratively, such as "It was a beautiful night; we could see all the stars" (which is impossible)?

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2007-04-03 14:45:54 · 33 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

33 answers

Some parts are to be taken literally and some figuratively. This is why we need the Holy Spirit and the authority of the Church to help us figure this out.

2007-04-03 14:53:24 · answer #1 · answered by Midge 7 · 4 0

I guess I'd have to ask you if you believe in sin at all. And at what point does it count against a person. I'd say I believe 3:23 literally. I've never met a person who was without sin just as Christ was. Talk to them long enough and sure enough, sin will rear it's ugly head. Also, what's the purpose of the plan God set from the beginning once man fell from fellowship. The fact that there was a plan for a Messiah leads me to believe that we are all born with a sinful nature. The Promise came through the lineage of those who had faith, as stated in Hebrews, and they obeyed God. The rest of the people...you know the result. Most of Paul's arguments centered around God's plan to restore all of man back to fellowship and not just those of Promise. So if those people (Gentiles) only knew how to sin and not about God's ways, why did God have to make a way for them too? Because they were sinful regardless if they knew it or not. (Rom 3:9) Paul constantly made a argument against the "Law" because it was imperfect. And Christ himself said I came to fulfill it. So the Law is longer a way to God. It was fulfilled.

Your point about the baby is real good. I've always been taught there is an accountability that comes at some point in someones life. At that point sin is held against us. But your point makes me want to look into scripture more to see if it is referenced.

2007-04-03 15:42:54 · answer #2 · answered by JohnFromNC 7 · 1 1

Paul, in Romans, supposedly quotes from the Psalms, writing that no one is good. Ever. This is where the basis for all have sinned and fall short comes from. It was Paul's belief that no one could do good on their own. That there is no righteous one among humans. That no one could follow the Law compeltely.

In the Jewish belief - it is possible for one to follow the Law, to do good, to do what is right. In fact Luke even rights in his gospel that John the Baptist's parents were righteous and fulfilled all of the Law. Oops.

If you want the truth - read the Psalms that Paul quotes from and Deut 31. The latter says that God gave the Law to humans so that they could do it. That it was perfectly reasonable for people to be capable of doing good.

Because of Paul's views - original sin came about and that meant that no one was free from sin. So babies, small children, the mentally handicapped - all had sin because it was the human condition. That there was no way around it.

2007-04-03 14:55:00 · answer #3 · answered by noncrazed 4 · 1 1

The only sure proof that all babies are negatively affected by sin is the fact that all babies are subject to death.

One who is without sin is not subject to death ... yet babies still die ... hence, babies are in some way "stained" by sin, from the moment of their conception.

We Catholics know this to be the effect of Adam's "original" sin.

So yes, all have sinned and fallen short of the grace of God.

The Blessed Virgin Mary was privileged to have her sins forgiven by God before she was conceived in her mother's womb ... this is the Immaculate Conception, an accomodation made primarily to provide a suitable and sacred "vessel" for the conception, gestation, and birth of the holy and sinless Jesus.

Jesus IS the grace of God, so sin does not apply to him at all, nor does death.

Jesus PERMITTED himself to be put to death in order to allow evil to destroy itself.

No one, not even the devil himself, had the power or authority to take the life of the sinless Christ, as under God's first and most basic law, predating the Noahide covenant, the Abrahamic covenant, and the 10 commandments, one who is without sin is NOT liable to die!

His glorious resurrection proved that he did in fact, have the power to lay down his life, and then take it up again.

Happy Easter!

2007-04-03 18:54:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes it should be. But a baby isn't accountable until he/she can comprehend right from wrong all babies or people with an extreme disability from birth that weren't ever given the opportunity to accept Christ.
Individuals with like retardation ect... will no doubt go to heaven.
But all people are born with a sin nature. It says in Romans 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men,for that all have sinned.

2007-04-03 15:50:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

we are all born with the stain of original sin. that is why catholics like to baptize their babies as soon as possible (at least in the old days). but if a baby dies before being baptized, he is not going to burn in hell. god is not cruel. the age of reason is generally seven. kids/babies/toddlers can be mischievious way before seven tho, even in a calculated way. but we ALL have sinned in some form or fashion.

on a technical note, (which i cannot personally answer) you may want to look in to the original greek word usage here. some times the translation gets the literal and figurative interpretations muddied up.....

2007-04-03 15:13:46 · answer #6 · answered by treesandfleas 2 · 0 1

Yes, ALL have sinned including those not born yet. It is the inherited sin nature.

But God has already taken care of that through His Son Jesus. You need only accept Him.

The babies who died before reaching accountability or those stillborn in the womb are okay and with Jesus. God is a compassionate God you know.

2007-04-03 14:54:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

You can take it literally. All have sinned including babies. At the moment of birth you are born a sinner, because mankind lives in a fallen state, thanks to Adam and Eve. You don't have to teach a child to lie or steal, they just seem to do it naturally. Instead children have to be taught how to behave and not lie or steal. Regarding children, if in the event of death of a child they would go to Heaven, because they are not responsible until the age of accountability. This is an age where the child know right from wrong, it would be different for each child because they develop at different rates.

2007-04-03 14:51:56 · answer #8 · answered by angel 7 · 4 2

I would take it as literally as life itself. Protestants have nothing to do with it-it is scripture.

But, when you take a portion of a passage out of its context-then you can suppose all kinds of meanings. Read the whole passage- not just half a verse. Read 3:21-31. The last half of that verse says "and are justified freely by His grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus."

This whole passage is talking about how we are justified by faith. It has nothing to do with babies. If there is a baby in this passage-you are putting it in yourself-it is not in the scripture. The text means what it says-nothing else.

2007-04-03 14:58:45 · answer #9 · answered by John S 3 · 0 2

Well..there are methods to the study of the bible. Some bible speech is truly stated, but it's not necessarily a "truth to live by". That's where alot of people get mixed up about the bible and what is says and means. ( Besides the misquotes)

Babies are innocent of sin until the "age of accountability" which is a different age for different children. You needn't worry about God...there is no one...anywhere..as fairand wonderful as he.

2007-04-03 14:53:03 · answer #10 · answered by Eartha Q 6 · 0 2

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