can you tell me the meaning of this
Hosea
1:1 The word of the LORD that came to Hosea, the son of Beeri, in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, [and] Hezekiah, kings of Judah, and in the days of Jeroboam the son of Joash, king of Israel.
1:2 The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go take to thee a wife addicted to lewdness and children of lewdness; for the land hath committed great lewdness, [departing] from the LORD.
1:3 So he went and took Gomer the daughter of Diblaim; who
conceived, and bore him a son.
2007-04-03 03:09:29 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Hosea 1:1-3 does not necessarily mean that Gomer was a harlot when Hosea married her; the verse describes the event in its final consequences.
Gomer, the adultress, symbolizes faithless Israel. And just as Hosea could not give up his wife forever even when she played the harlot, so God could not renounce Israel, who had been betrothed to him.
God would chastise, but it would be the chastisement of the jealous lover, longing to bring back the beloved to the fresh and pure joy of their first love.
With love in Christ.
2007-04-03 07:14:32 · answer #1 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The marriage between Hosea and Gomer illustrates God's relationship with Israel. He loved her in spite of her adultery (idolatry).
It's not that adultery is condoned, but it shows the great love and compassion of God that He kept taking Israel back - because He honored His promise to Abraham - even when she "played the harlot" with idolatry.
2007-04-03 03:19:23 · answer #2 · answered by Contemplative Chanteuse IDK TIRH 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It's a symbolic statement being made.
The people of God has "prostituted" themselves to other cultures and people groups, taking the false religions as their own.
Within that sin, because they were His Chosen People, God saw it as an adulterous act.
However, even in their sin, God still showed His love towards them.
Clammy S,
You stated "we can not commit adultery." but that is not true.
Married people, who have sex with someone who is not their spouse is commiting adultery. Read Galations, Ephesians, and Hebrews.
2007-04-03 03:17:07 · answer #3 · answered by *Daisy* 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The 20/20 rule applies here. Read the 20 versus before these versus, and the 20 after. I might help put in into context for you.
2007-04-03 03:13:45 · answer #4 · answered by frosty 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
God's point is that a Spouse can choose to forgive their adulterous Mate and take them back. Imagine how much better families would be if we would practice forgiveness. (Which is what Resurrection Sunday/Easter is all about.)
God was paralleling this story to His forgiveness of His children who strayed from Him.
2007-04-03 03:20:20 · answer #5 · answered by woman of faith 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
HI
there were reasoning for preserving the jewish line but we are not bound by this any more Jesus has came and made new laws and we can not commit adultery.
Lammy
2007-04-03 03:14:00 · answer #6 · answered by Clammy S 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the 5236th time.....
We are no longer bound by the OT laws & precepts...
We are saved by grace through faith
Stop blowing scripture out of context with your pick & choosy-ness
2007-04-03 03:12:23 · answer #7 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Thanks for the reading, as I read further (which some fail to do), I learned that this was all about God's new covenant to the Israelites. One sentence can't tell you everything, you have to read the before and after to get the full understanding. Thanks, again, you have reiterated my Faith in God!!
2007-04-03 03:21:04 · answer #8 · answered by treasureyourself 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The answer to your question lies in the reading of the entire story
2007-04-03 03:13:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes!
2007-04-03 03:12:21 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋