English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I asked this same question about Islam a few days ago. I am looking at some research right now and i will write exactly what it says. "Prior to 40 days, a miscarried fetus does not trigger birth-related purity issues, and therefore is of lesser status than a more mature fetus" I'm doing a paper on stem cell research and I need an answer to this question. Please don't be rude. If my understanding of what this quote said is wrong than just correct me and move on. But please help me answer this question. Why are women not considered pregnant until after 40 days in Judaism?

2007-04-02 03:55:45 · 10 answers · asked by nicky3162002 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

10 answers

Women ARE considered pregnant before 40 days.
According to Jewish tradition, from conception until 40 days (of pregnancy), one may pray for the gender of a child. Thus, it is apparent that according to Judaism, a woman is considered pregnant at the conception of the fetus.
While the fetus is considered to be a potential person from conception, before 40 days of gestation the Talmud calls the fetus "mayim b'alma" (mere water), and therefore many authorities feel that in a situation when an abortion is permitted, it should be performed as early as possible.

2007-04-02 07:45:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

that is not an issue of female pregnancy, but the legal and religious status of the fetus and any ensuing discharge in terms of ritual purity.
the state of "pregnancy" has no real bearing in judaism -- but "birth" does and that depends on the definition of the fetus as being "alive" or simply an extension of the mother (this is not the same as the notion of "viability")
however, if a woman miscarries before 40 days, there is still ritual impurity. one question you are getting at is what the status of the miscarried cells is before 40 days -- must they be treated with the respect accorded a human or not, and for that, you need to speak with a proper jewish religious medical ethicist. I can get you names if you want.

2007-04-02 04:01:12 · answer #2 · answered by rosends 7 · 0 0

There are more miscarriages that occur in the first 40 days than we know. We often think them to be a late period. There would be no way to know each and every pregnancy before 40 days. Even then, it is tough. At the time of the writing of the Bible, there was no way to know for sure a woman was pregnant until a physician could hear the heartbeat and feel the baby move from the outside (after 6mos pregnant). It wasn't until after a missed period that a woman could even consider herself pregnant, and then she might be wrong.

2007-04-02 04:01:07 · answer #3 · answered by Momofthreeboys 7 · 0 0

Pregnant is pregnant. The FETUS has a different status after forty days.
If I recall correctly, it's around Day 40 that an embryo becomes a fetus. In other words, it becomes more... I guess more human around that time.

2007-04-02 04:03:50 · answer #4 · answered by Melanie Mue 4 · 1 0

This I dont know. Because at 40 days a baby still cant survive ouside the mother's uterus if born. And, the baby has a heartbeat at 3 weeks and by 8 weeks all organs are present and functioning, so, its not that its not yet a "complete" human. Makes no sense to me.

2007-04-02 04:00:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I can't answer that question directly but even here in the states a miscarriage before 6 weeks (42 days) is somehow considered different. I think aroudn 6 weeks is when it becomes "firmly" attached to the lining of the uterus but how theat would have been known when that was written.

2007-04-02 03:59:53 · answer #6 · answered by Betsy 7 · 0 0

Maybe there was a high miscarriage rate and the chances of a birth coming to full term was greater the longer it survived(this is redundant I know), then they drew the line at 40 days.

2007-04-02 03:59:09 · answer #7 · answered by poseidenneptune 5 · 0 0

I took that to mean that the death of the fetus at that stage would not cause an infection in the mother's womb. As in, no DNC.

I forgot my medical degree today so I am only guessing.

2007-04-02 04:00:24 · answer #8 · answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 · 0 0

cause thats what the ancient belief was and we know now that its wrong

2007-04-02 03:59:00 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I heard that this is how long it takes to find the real father.

2007-04-02 03:59:48 · answer #10 · answered by Ray2play 5 · 1 2

fedest.com, questions and answers