If you look at the history of the RCC you can plainly see that the role of the priest has always served as the average persons key to the bible. During times when the average person could not read/ write the priest delivered the sermons as he interpreted the word of God. It was during those times that the messages of the Bible could be/ were diluted to deliver the message of the church or the rulers of the cities and towns they lived in. FOr instance if the king needed a certain type of support he would tell the priest to deliver his message/ request intermingled with just enough of the bible to make it seem as though it was God's will that congregation behave in such a way.
If they did not, it was looked upon as a sin against God, the church and country.
This tradition continues today when Catholics see a priest and confess their sins to him and not God. He tells them that God forgives them and all they have to do is say a few Hail Mary's and a coulple of Our Fathers.
The fact is, Jesus died on he cross and died so that he could perform as our advocate before God; not the priest. Believers are only required to ask God for forgiveness. By admitting that I need to ask for forgiveness "in the name of Jesus" I am recognizing that Jesus' actions on the cross covered every sin in the world until the end of time; His blood is more than sufficient. Not the words of a priest, not his interpretation of the bible.
I am not Catholic, I am however a beliver. I learned the sordid details of the RCC when I was studying Spanish history in college.
2007-04-02 03:19:14
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answer #1
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answered by TBONE 4
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"Original Sin" doesn't mean or imply the ordinary, everyday types of sin. She was human, just like everyone else. What is meant by her being preserved by original sin, meant that she was recognized for NOT having premarital sex with a human.
The RCC church follows the traditions of men and the bible (The RCC uses the Apostles (or community dieties/saints) to provide a structure to the "traditional" concept or indoctinization). The bible is more of a guide, a regulation that is interpreted. Human behavior is very complicated and there are so many different social norms and cultural differences between people--that the bible doesn't necessarily address them, or are not conducive to impress on specific societal norms--so, traditions or rather, known societal norms are then adapted into the church. Its a matter of acceptance of the RCC doctrine.
Look at it this way, the reason that an organization (such as the RCC) does not impress a mass society to accept a rigid form of societal values, is because this would effectively depersonalize the doctrine in many eyes, through the lack of personal contact or connection, impeding culture growth, social change, and innovation...thus, perpetuating stereotypes and eventual (it might be quickly, depending on the individuals) rejection of the RCC doctrine. Obviously, the RCC doesn't want to do this, wants people to be a stable part of its congregation or organization, and wants its overall doctrine accepted by a large mass of people. Its a matter of influence.
2007-04-02 02:52:25
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answer #2
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answered by What, what, what?? 6
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It is often a misunderstanding of the Immaculate Conception, that by being saved from the ability to sin, that Mary did not still need salvation. The Angel Gabriel at the annunciation of the Incarnation praises Mary as "full of grace", not simply being plentiful of grace, but not lacking any grace.
Pope Pius IX in the "Ineffabilis Deus", which in 1854 declared the long held tradition of the Immaculate Conception as a dogma of the church, maintained the necessity for Mary's salvation. Yet Mary's redemption due to her graceful nature was more sublime than that of sinful men. Mary's sinlessness was not by her own accord, but rather by Christ's will. At the moment of her existence, Mary was granted with sanctifying grace.
"We declare, pronounce and define that the doctrine which holds that the Blessed Virgin Mary, at the first instant of her conception, by a singular privilege and grace of the Omnipotent God, in virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Savior of mankind, was preserved immaculate from all stain of original sin, has been revealed by God, and therefore should firmly and constantly be believed by all the faithful."
(Ineffabilis Deus - 1854)
-Kerplunk!
2007-04-02 03:02:30
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answer #3
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answered by Kerplunk! 2
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Mary was not sinless. She had to OFFER A DOVE FOR HER SIN according to Luke 2:24, and Leviticus 12:6-8.
Mary's sinful flesh however did not contaminate the child Jesus. Why? Because his life was not of human origin. His was transferred by God to Mary's womb. It was the first recorded human embryo transfer. (Read Luke 1:28-37)
BTW, the so called immaculate conception is non-biblical. It is mere human tradition ( story for short).
2007-04-02 03:03:10
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Mary was saved by the merits of Christ, just as we are. The difference between Mary and other Christians is that her salvation from sin was more perfect. While we are freed from original sin at our baptism, Mary was preserved from sin at her conception. But Jesus is the Savior in both cases.
God bless,
Stanbo
2007-04-02 02:59:29
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answer #5
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answered by Stanbo 5
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Of course Mary knew she needed a Savior. You are overlooking the fact that, if it had not been for Jesus, Mary would not have been sinless.
People assume (incorrectly) that Mary had to be sinless in order to be worthy of giving earthly birth to the Messiah. This is wrong. God is perfectly capable of being birthed from the womb of a woman having been born with original sin herself.
Mary did not have to be sinless. Mary was sinless ONLY because of Jesus.
This might be too theological for you but Jesus was conceived in Mary's heart at the same moment Mary was conceived in her mother's womb.
Therefore, Jesus is the one and only reason Mary is sinless.
2007-04-02 06:22:00
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answer #6
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answered by Daver 7
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Absolutely Mary was sinless.
"Immaculate Conception" means that in the womb of her mother, Mary was sinless. The vessel which was to carry the Lord & savior was blessed with this "sinless" grace.
Why need a savior? She needed the Son of God incarnated as man to lead her to heaven. Jesus "Acended" to heaven meaning that He can move between the two relms of his own accord. He can do so because he is Lord (within the Trinity).
Mary was "Assumed" into heaven (mind, body, & soul). This means that Jesus (God within the Trinity) choose her to goto heaven and as Christains we all pray that Jesus will to choose us to goto heaven. Mary is not divine, but rather choosen. Jesus is the bridge we'll all take and Mary was the first allowed over the bridge as God made her sinless and she said "Yes" (to life, humility, loving her neighbors, obedience, poverty, and in the joys of finding Jesus)
2007-04-02 03:02:41
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answer #7
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answered by Giggly Giraffe 7
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confident, we do have faith and recognize Mary became sinless. as a result, we have fun the dinner social gathering of the immaculate theory, Mary became unfastened from sin her entire existence and born without unique sin. i will use trouble-free experience. in case you have faith Jesus became God do you think of God might prefer to be born and stay in somebody for 9 months that became sinful and evil? Or extra, would not you prefer the excellent to your mom who fed you, raised you and cared for you. God gave us the regulation Honor your parents, so as that's what Jesus did venerated his mom, Mary via retaining her from sin. The Bible isn't each little thing. For interior the comparable bible they mentioned they could no longer write down all the miracles Jesus did, so are you purely going to shrink God to the miracles that have been contained interior the Bible? this is why the Catholic carry speedy to Sacred custom. i might advise interpreting real Devotion to Mary via St. Louis de Montfort and likewise traveling the internet website Catholic Apologetics advice.
2016-12-15 14:01:24
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answer #8
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answered by ? 4
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Of course Mary needed a savior, just like the rest of us. She, however, was given the grace of salvation BEFORE Christ was born.
You must understand that the Catholic Church predates the Bible, so there are a lot of traditions. Nothing wrong with that, in fact you can NOT live by sola scriptura - it is impossible, you MUST have Sacred Tradition or you are only getting part of the truth.
If you have any more questions about Catholics, please ask me via my profile. I promise that I will not spam you with stuff you don't want, I will only answer the questions.
2007-04-02 02:52:37
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Wow that is a lot of questions. Mary at the time of concieving Jesus was sinless the Bible doesn't make mention after that of her state of sin.
Why the RCC follow traditions. Well actually the RCC follows the Bible and what the Popes have said ex cathedra(from the thrown). RCC believes in Apostolic succession. That is they believe that the Popes are by way of title/position apostles descended from Peter(the rock). They believe that the Bible allows for the Pope to make decisions on faith and believe that the decisions of the Pope equal the message of the Bible in matters of faith.
Mary was a vessel for Jesus. She needed to be pure in order to bare the son of God. She was still human so she probably did sin after giving birht(but we do not know).
2007-04-02 02:44:22
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answer #10
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answered by a_talis_man 5
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To put it very simply you can get hit by a bus (sin) and be rushed to the ER and saved. Or someone could push you away from the bus before it hits you and you are still saved.
Let's look at some scriptures...
Genesis 3:15
And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.
"I will put enmity between Satan and the woman." Enmity?
Main Entry: en·mi·ty
Pronunciation: 'en-m&-tE
French enemisté, from enemi enemy
positive, active, and typically mutual hatred or ill will
synonyms ENMITY, HOSTILITY, ANTIPATHY, ANTAGONISM, ANIMOSITY, RANCOR, ANIMUS mean deep-seated dislike or ill will. ENMITY suggests positive hatred which may be open or concealed .
Doesn't sound to me as though the woman and Satan would co-operate much; they are enemies!
Impossible? What about Romans 3:9-12?
What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God. They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
What about that? Well, that is yet another instance of those who take everything literally except "This IS my body, this IS my blood" reading out of context.
Did Jesus sin? Are the extremely mentally retarded responsible for "sin"? What about Luke 1:6 which speaks of St. John the Baptist's parents, the priest Zacharias and Elizabeth, who "were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless"? Either they were also totally obedient to God, as Mary most certainly is, and are, therefore, sinless (i.e., not guilty of personal sin, though guilty of original sin), or the verse means something else. But what? Well, look at Psalm 14, which is the verse Paul is quoting.
Psalm 14
The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good. The Lord looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God. They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one. Have all the workers of iniquity no knowledge? who eat up my people as they eat bread, and call not upon the Lord. There were they in great fear: for God is in the generation of the righteous. Ye have shamed the counsel of the poor, because the Lord is his refuge. Oh that the salvation of Israel were come out of Zion! when the Lord bringeth back the captivity of his people, Jacob shall rejoice, and Israel shall be glad.
Paul is contrasting "they" -- those who do no good, who are filthy, who are not righteous, who do no good -- not one -- -- with God's people who are righteous.
Our belief is that all of us, Mary included, need a Redeemer because of our fallen nature and that no one can attain Heaven without His Blood. We are saved from our fallen nature by His grace alone through faith that worketh in charity. Mary, though, because God knew how she would use the free will He gave to her, was saved, by His grace, from having a fallen nature at the moment of her conception. She was redeemed from her mother's womb, an act planned from Genesis 3 so that she could act as the New Eve and so that Christ could be born of vessel even more pure than the Ark of the Covenant. Christ would not have been born from that which is impure! God knew of Mary's will to serve even before she was conceived. He knew she would say yes to Him, and He saved her at her first moment.
Many Blessings to you.
2007-04-02 03:03:33
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answer #11
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answered by Michelle_My_Belle 4
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