...doesn't that imply there is a way to have immaculate sex?
2007-03-31 17:34:47 · 14 answers · asked by dmlk2 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
OMG...I never thought of that...this is revolutionary!!! OK, while we could logically conclude that such a thing exists and has results...does it give you pleasure though? I mean women can get pregnant without getting an orgasm...and men...well, can they even have immaculate sex? (cos it's supposed to be woman and God, right?) But if they could, I know they would also get pleasure from it...since they (in most cases) can't get a woman pregnant without having an orgasm...where I going with this is...
If guys could have immaculate sex, get pleasure from it AND it would be considered "clean" since god did it...you know how many little boys would be spared terrible things priests do to them?
2007-03-31 17:45:15 · answer #1 · answered by Kat ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is incredible how many people confuse immaculate conception and the virgin birth.
For the people answering that are all messed up Sex was involved in the immaculate conception. When Mary became pregnant that was not the immaculate conception, that was the Virgin Birth.
TWO different concepts people.
2007-04-01 00:42:43 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
I'm still open to thinking outside the square on this. I think that the angelic being in Daniel 10 was a demon. That's why he thought that Michael was "one of" the chief princes, even though Michael is the archangel. The prophecy of the King of the North and the King of the South is the demonic way of predicting the future and orchestrating world events.
Jude 9 says not to slander celestial beings. Daniel called this angelic being "my lord" even though he was scared silly of it.
Therefore, I'm looking into the possibility that there is more interplay between the work of the light-side and dark-side angels than I previously thought. In Islam, there are four archangels and Michael is one of them. If Islam is based on actual revelations from the angelic realm, then it makes sense because I think double agents might be at the top on their side, but slightly below that on the undercover side (think Miss Congeniality - although she wasn't at the top, she was the top looker for the job). The angelic being speaking to Daniel seemed to know that Michael was helping him even though Michael was Daniel's prince.
As for the word yada 'to know', considering what the www.blueletterbible.com site says about the mark of the beast - chi xi stigma - I think that this might be referring to political sex in particular. It's reflecting the tendency of people who are at least slightly homosexual at a certain level to sleep with others to determine what they're like. As in the wedding feast where the virgins were kept waiting outside, I think these types of relationships are very class-oriented, because they are convenient. In contrast, the traditional Jewish way to marry was to find a woman to marry, go away and prepare a place and bride price and then "buy" the wife from the father.
I'm not saying I don't believe in immaculate conception, but the jury is still out for me on the double-crossing and convenient co-operation, or at least making something out of whatever happens, between Satan's work and Jehovah's. For example, there is such a thing as a person being handed over to Satan to be taught not to blaspheme. This is not a final sentence. It's for the purpose of receiving the Christian back after they've learnt their lesson. I see definite strategy at each and every stage.
2007-04-01 00:45:53 · answer #3 · answered by courage 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hello. What a highly odd question, but I have an answer for you. The immaculate conception was not performed or orchestrated by the will of man nor flesh and blood. It was God's spirit who overshadowed Mary causing her to be impregnated with Jesus Christ the Last Adam. Normally it would be the blood of the father passed onto the child, but instead it would be the blood of the mother. This is MIRACULOUS, divine, and the seed of the woman would crush satan's head... as it is today. Those born not of flesh and blood nor of the will of man are likewise: born of God... sired by the Spirit of God with His likeness. Join the family!
2007-04-01 00:45:14 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Immaculate conception means born without the stain of original sin. Mary the Mother of Jesus was born without the stain of original sin
2007-04-01 00:39:04 · answer #5 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Immaculate conception defies science. It doesn't imply immaculate sex, any more than artificial insemination implies sex.
2007-04-01 00:39:25 · answer #6 · answered by MONK 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The immaculate conception is a Catholic invention. It is not based on the Bible.
2007-04-01 00:42:37 · answer #7 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
According to the Catholic church there has been only one immaculate conception and that was Mary.
2007-04-01 00:37:45 · answer #8 · answered by s. grant 4 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Since this is a religious category I will say this. Please dont compare yourself to God. There was only one immaculate conception and it is not nor will it ever be possible for a human to have an immaculate conception.
2007-04-01 00:38:28 · answer #9 · answered by ncgirl 6 · 0⤊ 4⤋
Where in the bible said that Mary was begotten with Holy Spirit , Jesus Yes but not Mary , when the angel appear to the mother of mary to tell her she was pregnant by H.S?
2007-04-01 00:43:34 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋