Surely he knew the scriptures better than anyone?
If the priest was known by 2 names, shouldn't Jesus be more clear?
1 Samuel 21:{1} David went to Nob, to Ahimelech the priest.(...) {2} David answered Ahimelech the priest,(...) {3} Now then, what do you have on hand? Give me five loaves of bread, or whatever you can find." {4} But the priest answered David, "I don't have any ordinary bread on hand (...) {5} David replied (...) {6} So the priest gave him the consecrated bread
Mark 2:25He answered, "Have you never read what David did when he and his companions were hungry and in need? 26In the days of Abiathar the high priest, he entered the house of God and ate the consecrated bread, which is lawful only for priests to eat. And he also gave some to his companions."
2007-03-30 08:34:06 · 6 answers · asked by jeff7272 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
WELL DONE WITH THE "IT WAS HIS SON ANSWER! IT AT LEAST SHOWS THAT HE MAY NOT HAVE BEEN LYING."
I would think though that the son of god would be more specific, but oh well...
2007-03-30 08:55:15 · update #1
The problem is with phonetic spelling and translation of a name from one language, Hebrew, into Aramaic and then into Greek and then into English.
Both are the same name, like Juan and John are the same name in different languages, or Jesus and Yeshua or ..........
2007-03-30 08:42:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because they were all the same family and all priests at the same time in the same "house"...
Jesus didn't misquote anything, He just named one of the other priests.
1 Samuel 22:20(New International Version)
20 But Abiathar, a son of Ahimelech son of Ahitub, escaped and fled to join David.
2007-03-30 08:49:33 · answer #2 · answered by artist_soul_auslaut 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both Ahimelech and Abiathar were priests.
Nepotism was rampant in the Priesthood.
They were father/son to each other.
No contradiction.
Jesus spoke the truth.
Abiathar was the High Priest; his father, Ahimelech would have also been a priest, in the priestly line of Levi.
2007-03-30 08:50:03 · answer #3 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know. Could it be that Ahimelech is the Hebrew form of the Greek/Aramaic/or some other language Abiathar? Maybe it was that who ever translated that verse or book translated it intentionally wrong in an effort to thwart any conversions? Maybe that person was being influenced by Satan.
2007-03-30 08:43:47 · answer #4 · answered by Tonya in TX - Duck 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Abiathar was his secret name that only Jesus knew him by. Every apologists knows that!
But seriously, folks...Abiathar was the son of Ahimelech. The "official" apologist explanation is that Jesus was only vaguely referring to the "lifetime" of Abiathar before he became High Priest. But this explanation really falls flat on it's face. This is clearly an error in the Bible.
Since Jesus probably never really existed, and Mark was certainly not written by anyone named Mark (unless you want to factor in the odds of it being a coincidence) the error falls on the copyist. The gospels were all written be men who had limited knowledge of the Jewish scriptures.
2007-03-30 08:38:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 3⤋
He was illiterate, like most people of his time, and there were also many different versions of some texts floating around since there were no printing presses.
2007-03-30 08:38:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 4⤋