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Hey christians out there seeking truth I have a intresting few scriptures that I want you to check out and tell me what they mean.

Isaiah chapter 29 verses 10 through 24

I believe that it is speaking of the book of Mormon and its coming forth to change the world and how much peace it will bring and light into the darkness. How learned men who are ignorant cannot read because of there hard hearts and preistcrafts. Those who are unlearned can read because they are not currupted.

And if Isaiah is not speaking of the book of mormon then what book is he speaking of? Considering the fact that it is pointing right to our dispensation.

Good luck

2007-03-30 05:33:26 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Very good kerry you know your research and history and interpit scriptures well in far more detail then I had expected.

So many people confuse the actual scripture and interpit wrong because of there lact of knowledge and twist it to sound like what they want.

They are speaing of a sealed book. Noone has listed the book they are speaking of if not the book of Mormon or they have made it to mean not of a book.

Inteligent answers please.

2007-03-30 06:12:58 · update #1

FOR THOSE WHO QUOTE OTHER BIBLES I AM TAKING ABOUT THE KJV BIBLE.

2007-03-30 07:35:37 · update #2

7 answers

It foresees and describes the event that occurred in 1830 where the manuscript was taken to a Charles Anton, ancient writings scholar at Columbia University where he authenticated the glyphs take n off of the gold plates found by Joseph Smith. Anton determined that they were "true characters." When Anton learned that the characters where found via the intervention of an angel, he retracted his statement. Part of the gold plates were sealed, and Anton proclaimed that he could not read a sealed book.
This was foreseen hundreds of years earlier by Isiah.

2007-03-30 05:45:57 · answer #1 · answered by Kerry 7 · 2 2

Wow, speaking of "learned men who are ignorant"............

Prophecy Of Isaias
Chapter 29

God's heavy judgments upon Jerusalem, for their obstinacy: with a prophecy of the conversion of the Gentiles.




The canonical Book of Isaias is made up of two distinct collections of discourses, the one (chapters 1-35) called sometimes the "First Isaias"; the other (chapters 40-66) styled by many modern critics the "Deutero- (or Second) Isaias"; between these two comes a stretch of historical narrative; some authors, as Michaelis and Hengstenberg, holding with St. Jerome that the prophecies are placed in chronological order; others, like Vitringa and Jahn, in a logical order; others finally, like Gesenius, Delitzsch, Keil, think the actual order is partly logical and partly chronological. No less disagreement prevails on the question of the collector. Those who believe that Isaias is the author of all the prophecies contained in the book generally fix upon the Prophet himself. But for the critics who question the genuineness of some of the parts, the compilation is by a late and unknown collector. It would be well, however, before suggesting a solution to analyse cursorily the contents.

The third section of the first collection includes chapters xxiv-xxviii, sometimes called "the Apocalypse of Isaias". In the first part (xxiv-xxvi, 29) the Prophet announces for an undetermined future the judgment which shall precede the kingdom of God (xxiv); then in symbolic terms he describes the happiness of the good and the punishment of the wicked (xxv). This is followed by the hymn of the elect (xxvi, 1-19). In the second part (xxvi, 20-xxvii) the Prophet depicts the judgment hanging over Israel and its neighbours. The date is most unsettled among modern critics, certain pasages being attributed to 107 B.C., others even to a date lower than 79 B.C.. Let it be remarked, however, that both the ideas and the language of these four chapters support the tradition attributing this apocalypse to Isaias. The fourth division opens with a pronouncement of woe against Ephraim (and perhaps Juda; xxviii, 1-8), written prior to 722 B.C.; the historical situation implied in xxviii, 9-29, is a strong indication that this passage was written about 702 B.C. To the same date belong xxix-xxxii, prophecies concerned with the campaign of Sennacherib. This series fittingly concludes with a triumphant hymn (xxxiii), the Prophet rejoicing in the deliverance of Jerusalem (701). Chapters xxxi-xxxv, the last division, announce the devastation of Edom, and the enjoyment of bountiful blessings by ransomed Israel. These two chapters are thought by several modern critics to have been written during the captivity in the sixth century. The foregoing analysis does not enable us to assert indubitably that this first collection as such is the work of Isaias; yet as the genuineness of almost all these prophecies cannot be seriously questioned, the collection as a whole might still possibly be attributed to the last years of the Prophet's life or shortly afterwards. If there really be passages reflecting a later epoch, they found their way into the book in the course of time on account of some analogy to the genuine writings of Isaias. Little need be said of xxxvii-xxxix. The first two chapters narrate the demand made by Sennacherib–the surrender of Jerusalem, and the fulfillment of Isaias's predictions of its deliverance; xxxviii tells of Ezechias's illness, cure, and song of thanksgiving; lastly xxxix tells of the embassy sent by Merodach Baladan and the Prophet's reproof of Ezechias.

2007-03-30 06:59:09 · answer #2 · answered by Isabella 6 · 0 1

Sean, you've taken this passage completely out of context. The context is that God is speaking to the Jews and condemning them for their disobedience. Because they refused to listen to His commandments, they were spiritually unable to understand Him at all.

Verse 11 clarifies it for you: the VISION (word of truth) God gave the Jews through their prophets will be stopped, since it is as incomprehensible to them as a book would be to a blind or illiterate man.

This is not about the Book of Mormon. Actually, I see the Book of Mormon referenced at Galatians 1:6-9.

2007-03-30 05:49:27 · answer #3 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 3 0

--IN ORDER TO unseal something it has to already exist--THUS THE Bible stands alone in that the cannon of the Bible was finalized by the writers of the Bible about 100 AD-- NOT BY ANY council of Nicea or any other--that would leave open for spurios writings to be added!
--THIS CANNON is projected way into even the end of Christ's 1000 reign and into forever in the worship of Jehovah God!

--WHAT DID Jesus himself do when he went to the temple to read?
--DID HE pull out the "Book of Jesus", or any other writing?
--OR DID he take the scroll of Isaiah and after reading what is now Isaiah:

(Isaiah 61:1) “61 The spirit of the Sovereign Lord Jehovah is upon me, for the reason that Jehovah has anointed me to tell good news to the meek ones. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to those taken captive and the wide opening [of the eyes] even to the prisoners. . .”
--DID HE NOT SAY:
(Luke 4:21) “. . .: “Today this scripture that YOU just heard is fulfilled.””

--So what in fact was he doing? WAS IT not opening up a sealed book & showed how it applied?

(Isaiah 29:10-11) “10 For upon YOU men Jehovah has poured a spirit of deep sleep; and he closes YOUR eyes, the prophets, and he has covered even YOUR heads, the visionaries. 11 And for YOU men the vision of everything becomes like the words of the book that has been sealed up, which they give to someone knowing the writing, saying: “Read this out loud, please,” and he has to say: “I am unable, for it is sealed up”;”

--The cross-references to this text simply refer to the Bible and its complete interpretation, no need for any additional text:

Daniel 12:4) ““And as for you, O Daniel, make secret the words and seal up the book, until the time of [the] end. Many will rove about, and the [true] knowledge will become abundant.””

--SO DANIEL was projecting way into the future and included the many prophecies about Christ that Isaiah recorded & were not fully understood even in the time after Christ!

--Isaiah prophecies about a paradise earth need no other book to interpret because the Bible alone does all of this:

(2 Timothy 3:16-17) “16 All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.”

--IT DOES not need any other book for any interpretation --the sealed book or books are UNSEALED BY the Bible itself!

2007-03-30 05:38:59 · answer #4 · answered by THA 5 · 0 1

THA did a superb job on that one.I like to be brief and to the point.But your question deserved a detailed answer.No extra or new revelation or books are needed.Man has God's Word and that is all that is needed regarding spiritual matters and prophecy.

2007-03-30 06:14:30 · answer #5 · answered by kitz 5 · 0 0

The New Testament is just as good a candidate for this set of verses.

And if you take it metaphorically instead of literally, he could be speaking of Christ, Who is the Word.

Or he could be referring to an already extant text which has not survived.

Sorry, dear, it's not a sure thing at all.

2007-03-30 05:40:07 · answer #6 · answered by Granny Annie 6 · 2 0

God told them they should be wailing and crying for his anger and judgment on them for their disobedience to him. they will cry out to him and we will only hear mumblings and not answer. He will allow the evil powers to be to come upon them to miss guide them and give them no peace from even hopeful dreams. I encourage you to get the NIV Study Bible for the references to other scripture and biblical scholar interpretations to help you in your understanding. The sister has it right. Suzanne

2007-03-30 06:01:11 · answer #7 · answered by Dennis James 5 · 1 0

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