If a man comes upon a maiden that is not betrothed, takes her and has relations with her, and their deed is discovered,
29
the man who had relations with her shall pay the girl's father fifty silver shekels and take her as his wife, because he has deflowered her. Moreover, he may not divorce her as long as he lives.
Deuteronomy 22: 28-29
How can homosexuality and abortion be sinful when things like THIS are condoned in the bible?
2007-03-29 17:17:50 · 28 answers · asked by Hillary M 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
"No rape is not okay as long as you marry her.
Homesexuality is an abomination.
Abortion is murder.
Please dont pull text out of context and try to make your case it only makes you look stupid."
Sorry, I had to respond to this...let's assume I AM taking things out of context...I suppose I would look stupid....just like all of the other people who use the bible's text to promote HATE.
Oh, and the word "rape" isn't in the passage, I could say the same for the absence of the word "homosexual" in the bible...I guess it's ok to interpret things only if they're used to condemn people.
2007-03-29 17:31:15 · update #1
Don't forget baby smashing:
Happy shall he be, that taketh and dasheth thy little ones against the stones. Psalms 137:9
Apparently it's okay to kill children, but they have to be born first.
2007-03-29 17:23:54 · answer #1 · answered by Psyleet 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It has been said there are several 'outs' in the bible. This is hard to understand. It is in the context of this,"5 But if out in the country a man happens to meet a girl pledged to be married and rapes her, only the man who has done this shall die. 26 Do nothing to the girl". v 28 seems to imply consent on both the parties. Maybe the 'rape' is statutory?
All that aside Jesus changed much in the NT. Love replaced vengeance, forgiveness replaced restitution, and compassion replaced the 'rules'. Homosexuality, murder, theft, lying, adultery, and so on... are sins, Always were. You're talking apples and oranges. how can some obscure passage in the OT not justify sin today? Tres bizarre. Sin is sin. If you want to know the truth you can.
2007-03-30 00:39:18 · answer #2 · answered by B00G1 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
at the time that was the going rate...not the approval by payment to rape...that would be the same as saying the man in the present day Americas could rape a girl if he had already spent 7+ years in prison.
And during that time it was customary for women to be given in marriage.
Also note that it says that the rapist must marry the girl he raped and can never divorce her. In our day and age that seems barbaric. However back then if a girl was raped, de-flowered, she was no good for marriage anymore. Again this seems archaic and barbaric. But you are living under the new order brought in by Christ Jesus.
Where all people are equal, where GOD will no longer agree with mans way of separation by class, gender and race.
2007-03-30 00:33:59 · answer #3 · answered by Phil B 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
they had to marry the woman because she was no longer a virgin back in those days that was important because it kept disease down and it was to make sure the blood lines were pure. but if a married woman was raped she was taken away from the village for a certain amount of time to make sure she was not pregnant and the man was stoned to death check in Numbers- Deuteronomy
now on homosexuality the reason it was a sin is because people of the same sex can not multiply and in those days it was important that's another reason for having all those wives. but today we need population control so i wonder if its still a sin. birth control and masterbation were also sin's because life comes from a mans seed not from a womans egg our eggs are empty
2007-03-30 00:23:47 · answer #4 · answered by Peace 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
That verse is talking about consensual relations,not rape.
"How can homosexuality and abortion be sinful when things like THIS are condoned in the bible?"
You statement is wrong.Killing the innocent is forbidden in the Bible.Homosexuality is forbidden in the Bible.Rape is forbidden in the Bible,as the penalty for rape was death to the rapist.
2007-03-30 02:28:44 · answer #5 · answered by Serena 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I didn't read rape in that passage. Sounds like promiscuity to me!
That being said, it DOES treat the woman like a piece of property. Sexism isn't hard to find in the Bible.
Apparently its ok to treat a woman as chattel, but fall in love with another man and you're a crispy critter in Hell!
2007-03-30 00:22:14 · answer #6 · answered by Skippy 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
What does this passage have to do with rape?? Note that the passage says "THEIR deed". It is about consensual sexual relations outside of marriage, which the Bible clearly states are wrong.
.
2007-03-30 00:33:23 · answer #7 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There is no specific words or directives on abortion in the Bible.
He could also claim she is a whore or seductress and have her stoned to death. Those who wrote the Bible thought little of woman as anything but chattel.
2007-03-30 00:25:19 · answer #8 · answered by Terry 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No rape is not okay as long as you marry her.
Homesexuality is an abomination.
Abortion is murder.
Please dont pull text out of context and try to make your case it only makes you look stupid.
2007-03-30 00:24:28 · answer #9 · answered by carpentershammerer 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
"Their deed" it is not rape. Read your bible more and you will see that the male relatives of a rape victim kill the assailant several times and go on with their lives. Read Revelations too, you would be suprised what gets you into hell. Ever lied? See you there.
2007-03-30 00:22:58 · answer #10 · answered by seandashark 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋