After all, he founded the Anglican church because the Catholic Church didn't allow him to divorce his wife.
2007-03-29
17:04:49
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6 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
silly ... the question may not ask if he would have allowed gay marriage from the inception of the Anglican communion. Also, he was married to his first wife for 20 years until she could no longer produce a male heir - hence his divorce. Gay people existed during Henry VIII's time but history does not describe how they were treated.
2007-03-29
17:14:33 ·
update #1
James I was executed, if I recall, for reasons other than his alleged homosexuality.
2007-03-29
17:18:20 ·
update #2
So far, most of the answers are pointing to "he wouldn't have cared." Just as Henry VIII started Anglicanism to satisfy his own personal interestes, the Episcopal Church in the USA are satisfying their own personal interests in line with the founder of their faith. After all, Divorce was allowed in the Bible but not homosexual marriage. After all, two gay men cannot produce an heir to the throne - otherwise, Henry VIII could have impregnated any surrogate woman in England rather than sticking only his own nobility or royal blood from Spain.
2007-03-29
17:26:47 ·
update #3