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After all, he founded the Anglican church because the Catholic Church didn't allow him to divorce his wife.

2007-03-29 17:04:49 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

silly ... the question may not ask if he would have allowed gay marriage from the inception of the Anglican communion. Also, he was married to his first wife for 20 years until she could no longer produce a male heir - hence his divorce. Gay people existed during Henry VIII's time but history does not describe how they were treated.

2007-03-29 17:14:33 · update #1

James I was executed, if I recall, for reasons other than his alleged homosexuality.

2007-03-29 17:18:20 · update #2

So far, most of the answers are pointing to "he wouldn't have cared." Just as Henry VIII started Anglicanism to satisfy his own personal interestes, the Episcopal Church in the USA are satisfying their own personal interests in line with the founder of their faith. After all, Divorce was allowed in the Bible but not homosexual marriage. After all, two gay men cannot produce an heir to the throne - otherwise, Henry VIII could have impregnated any surrogate woman in England rather than sticking only his own nobility or royal blood from Spain.

2007-03-29 17:26:47 · update #3

6 answers

Henry VIII: Probably straight, with a libido to beat all.
James I, the son of his Mary Queen of Scots (almost Henry's daughter-in-law): Very likely bisexual if not leaning towards homosexual.

It's probably historically accurate to assume, however, that neither would approve of homosexual marriages because it would be a political threat and the general public at the time enabled James to pass the Sodomy Act.

Henry VIII successfully made divorce a political non-threat. He would have no personal purpose to make homosexuality a non-threat. James I WOULD have a personal purpose (rumors about him being gay flew around London of his day like wildfire) but would never admit it.

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James I was not executed. He went senile and died in 1625. Charles, his kid, was executed for treason at the height of the English Civil War. He's the one you're thinking of. :)

2007-03-29 17:15:54 · answer #1 · answered by Kate S 3 · 1 0

He'd probably think it was silly. Marriage wasn't about love or sex or romance or any nonsense like that. It was about HEIRS.

this idea that marriage is and has always been an institution of love and sex between a man and a woman is nonsense. Marriage, historically, is all about ensuring a stable hereditary line and property rights.

Henry VIII would probably tell a gay man this "what's the problem? Have your male mistress, love and adore him, what do I care? But why oh why would you MARRY him??? He can't give you any sons!!!"

2007-03-29 17:10:19 · answer #2 · answered by Skippy 6 · 0 0

He was an idiot...he should've married a guy. Turn away from the true Church because your wife produced a female.

2007-03-29 17:13:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

He was a womanizer, though and probably couldn't relate. He probably thought he was God and since he wasn't (gay) then it must be evil. (eyeroll)

2007-03-29 17:10:55 · answer #4 · answered by strpenta 7 · 0 0

I don't think he would have cared. After all, he got what HE wanted.

2007-03-29 17:22:01 · answer #5 · answered by thezaylady 7 · 0 0

He would say, OFF WITH THEIR HEADS!!!!!

2007-03-29 17:12:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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