2007-03-29 15:36:51 · 15 answers · asked by a.k 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because the Bible says it.
Read Luke chapter 1, and notice verse 35.
2007-03-29 15:43:25 · answer #1 · answered by supertop 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Jesus is God.
God :
The father
The son, Jesus
The Holy Spirit
Like
Time:
The Past
The Present
The Future
God Bless
2007-03-29 22:42:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
If we say Jesus Christ is son of God... it is absolute truth for all men on Mother Earth are sons of God. But if we say only Jesus Christ is the true son of God... it is a misnomer in Christianity.
Bhagwan Mahavira (the 24th preceptor of Jainism) who came about 500 years earlier to Jesus Christ stated, "Every human being has the power to become a Mahavira". Bhagwan Mahavira never stated that he was the only one of his kind. Neither did Jesus Christ ever state that he was only son of God. It is a mischief being played by his followers with vested interests.
The saying that every human being has the power to become Mahavira has a very deep-rooted meaning. It implies that journey to the kingdom of God can be made by any. There are no special privileges in the domain of God. All are equal.
Bhagavad Gita... the sacred doctrine of Hinduism (preached by Lord Krishna in the battle of Mahabharata) underlines the importance of the above statement. Bhagavad Gita also clearly signifies that every human being has a right to reach the kingdom of God. Except for Lord Krishna... who was a preceptor... an incarnate of God Almighty himself (God Almighty manifest in human form... an Avatar of the era)... all other who followed him were only human gods.
Every era... Yuga has a preceptor. About 3500 years before came Lord Krishna and now the whole mankind is expecting Bhagwan Kalki... the preceptor of the modern era.
Like Jesus Christ... Mahavira, Gautama Buddha and Prophet Mohammed... all were man gods (human gods)... mortal human beings who gained enlightenment and finally salvation (aka the moksha in Hinduism). More on Jesus Christ - http://www.godrealized.org/jesus_christ.html
2007-04-01 18:27:18 · answer #3 · answered by godrealized 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because that is what the Bible teaches! Over and over it refers to Jesus being the Son of God and God being the Father of Jesus. It does not teach that Jesus is his own Father, or even that Jesus is equal to God, or part of God, other than his only-begotten Son (only directly created by God).
John 3:16 & 17: "“For God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son, in order that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life. 17Â For God sent forth his Son into the world, not for him to judge the world, but for the world to be saved through him."
I don't really know how much plainer it can be. anyway, that is why we say, the truth, that Jesus is the Son of God. He is.
2007-03-29 22:58:13 · answer #4 · answered by wannaknow 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because Jesus is the son of God, read the New Testament
2007-03-29 22:43:24 · answer #5 · answered by Angel Eyes 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
God is the 3 in one! Meaning that he is the father and all knowing and maker of all things. God is also the Holy Ghost and he is Jesus Christ. Confused? In order for you to go to heaven and be forgiven, god came to earth in human form as Jesus Gods Son also God himself can not look upon sin, so he sent his Son to earth to be born to human parents, grow up live amongst us back in the day and after 33 years he was ment to die on a Cross for you and all for everyones sins. I hope that this helped, This is what I know from my own point of view.
2007-03-29 22:49:06 · answer #6 · answered by craig_snow2000 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
325 A.D. First General Council at Nicea, declared that the Son was from the beginning of the same nature as the Father.
381 A.D. Second General Council at Constantinople, declared that the Holy Spirit was to be worshipped with the Father and the Son.
431 A.D. Third General Council at Ephesus, decreed that Jesus had two natures, a human and a divine; also that Mary was the "mother of God", in opposition to those who maintained that she was the "mother of Christ".
451 A.D. Fifth General Council at Chalcedon, decreed that the two natures in Christ constituted only one Person and one will.
2007-03-29 22:42:03 · answer #7 · answered by Justsyd 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Because He said "I am the Son of God" - see John 10:36
2007-03-29 22:54:26 · answer #8 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Is it easier for you to believe that Jesus is God Almighty and never had a beginning?
Or does it make more sense that Jesus had a beginning...in heaven and here on earth?
2007-03-29 22:47:57 · answer #9 · answered by Here I Am 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
god refers to him as son but christ refers to his self as the son of man.
2007-03-30 00:12:13 · answer #10 · answered by Peace 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because God the Father calls him that. It is in the Bible. It is also in such historical records as Pilate's records. I believe it is also in several ancient historians accounts as well, such as Josephus, Flavious. So it was a well known fact in those days that Jesus was called the son of God.
2007-03-29 22:42:07 · answer #11 · answered by Gardener for God(dmd) 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋