born: God the Father's or Mary's? If it was Mary's, it could not be pure, could it?
(No disrespect intended but people ask)
2007-03-29 13:16:18 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Your blood type is established before you are born, by specific genes inherited from your parents. You receive one gene from your mother and one from your father; these two combine to establish your blood type.
So the blood of Jesus was part man, part God. However, it was not so much the blood as it was the sacrifice it represented--atonement for sin. God bore the punishment for us all on the cross.
2007-03-29 13:58:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
He was from God the Father in the spirit, as the eternal Son of God. But his body was human. I guess God provided half the DNA, an easy thing for God to do.
My understanding is that we have spirit, soul and body. Our physical body is some respects an 'earth suit' that lets us live in the physical world.
God is a spirit, but can incarnate in a human body since God is all powerful. Eternal life is from and in the Son, He came to provide it. Christians' spirits are recreated in the image of Christ when they are 'born again'. By renewal of the mind through the Word, with the help of the Holy Spirit, they can become more and more christlike in actual behaviour on this Earth.
The biggest blessing He brought is forgiveness and reconciliation with God. Everyone needs these. If muslims are in heaven it will be because Jesus paid for their sins.
2007-03-29 20:33:44 · answer #2 · answered by Cader and Glyder scrambler 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't get offended by these kinds of questions and they should not be seen as a 'challenge'; to those who have faith and trust in Yahweh.
His (Yeshua / Christ Jesus) SPIRIT was of God the Father and His flesh was that of Mary - His mother.
As to the question of the Power of His blood, the Bible says it was shed for the forgivness of sins. Therefore, as a child of Yahweh and a Citizen of His Kingdom. We need not wonder, worry about, or question; His Power or Ability to grant forgivness of sins.
The more important thing to remember, about Yeshua's blood. Is that it is was shed, for all people to have forgivness of their sins.
And finally, since Yeshua's (Christ Jesus') 'Spirit' was from God the Father, that blood was made pure; through Yahweh's Power to do so!
2007-03-29 20:32:02 · answer #3 · answered by yahweh_is_the_lord 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Coming from Roman Catholicism, Mary is considered pure, being immaculately conceived. Secondly, physiologically, our blood is distinct from our parents. We are capable of having different blood types than our parents, therefore any mention of Mary is irrelevant.
Importantly, it must be understood that Christ is both fully God and fully human, for this reason he has a distinct corporeal body. If you believe that Shroud of Turin to be the actual burial cloth of Christ (Which is highly disputable), the blood of the cloth indicates that Christ's blood was type AB.
-Kerplunk!
2007-03-29 20:43:18 · answer #4 · answered by Kerplunk! 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Holy Spirit was His Father and from what I understand the mother's blood is filtered through the umbilical cord~in other words the baby doesn't get the mother's blood during gestation and in the womb
2007-03-29 20:25:56 · answer #5 · answered by sego lily 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Once again, God has no physical body. Christ has a dual nature God and Man. Mary was cleansed of original sin at the moment of her conception.She was therefore born sinless.
What do you mean by "pure".
2007-03-29 20:20:44 · answer #6 · answered by Arnon 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Mary was considered by God to be "blessed." Nevertheless, the purity of His blood is a result of who He is, not how He was born. Once Christ is accepted as your Saviour, the purity of your blood is irrelevant. It's the purity of your soul, heart, and mind that's of concern to God.
2007-03-29 20:20:17 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Human Blood. It would have been Mary's blood type of course.Mary was pure that is why she was chosen.
2007-03-29 22:41:01 · answer #8 · answered by Pamela V 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Scripture teaches that Adam sinned as the
representative, and federal, head of the entire human race [Romans 5:14] and that this sinfulness of Adam affected the blood...and...since the blood is the life of all flesh...sin must, therefore, be
transmitted in the blood.
"Because the life of every creature is its blood
...the life of every creature is its blood
Leviticus 17:14
Hebrews 2:14 states, "Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of [Adam's] flesh
and blood, He also Himself [that is, Christ Jesus] likewise took part of the same." The Greek word which is translated as, "partakers" is KOYNONEHO and means to "share fully."
Therefore, this verse teaches that all mankind "shares fully" in the sinfulness which is imparted to all of Adam's children...all descendants of Adam. However, when this verse states, that Jesus
"took part of the same," the Greek word which is translated as "took part" is METECHO and
means to "take only a part, but not all!" This passage teaches that all of mankind share fully in
the flesh and blood of Adam, but that Jesus shared only in the flesh. Jesus, in the flesh, was of
the seed of Adam, but the blood in His veins came by way of the supernatural conception of the Holy Spirit.
2007-03-29 20:59:35 · answer #9 · answered by linnea13 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's his parent's blood or Mary's
2007-03-29 20:20:42 · answer #10 · answered by Amy T 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋