Where exactly on the bible does it says that it's wrong to be homosexual?

Question

It's not a rhetoric question! (...necessarily)

Also, where does it say that marriage is ONLY between a man and a woman?

Answer 1

It doesn't. The Bible does NOT condemn homosexuals and does NOT consider homosexual sex a sin.

The passages in Leviticus (18:22 and 20:13), understood IN THE CONTEXT of the time and place, are not an admonishment against loving sexual relationships between people of the same sex but instead against sex as a form of domination and control. Besides, these passages are part of the Holiness Code which is not binding to modern day Christians (or anyone else for that matter).

The story of Sodom and Gomorrah was a warning against rape, inhospitality and xenophobia. The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshiping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned. If Jude 1:7 describes anything about the sexual immorality and perversion in Sodom and Gomorrah, it's describing RAPE.

1 Corinthians 6:9 was a mistranslation of the word "malakee". It's used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.

1 Timothy 1:9-10? Also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.

The words "physin" and "paraphysin" in Romans 1:26-27 have also been mistranslated. Contrary to popular belief, the word "paraphysin" does not mean "to go against the laws of nature", but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that particular person. An example of the word "paraphysin" is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it implies that it would be unnatural for heterosexuals to live as homosexuals and for homosexuals to live as heterosexuals.

Answer 2

The word homosexual is not in the Bible.

The newer versions you will see it... but not in the KJV, NAS, etc.

NIV, The Message, those that came out in the 1990s you will see the word there. (NIV missing over 300 passages from the original version) (The Message is a pure disgrace to God's Word)

However, they came up with the word homosexual because of the word Sodom. Man and woman sodomize each other, yet you don't hear heterosexual scream about how terrible that is.

Marriage between a man and woman, doesn't just come right out and say it is the only marriage. However....a man shall leave his parents and a woman leave hers, in holy matrimony they become one flesh.

Answer 3

This question has been answered repeatedly, including right here. The above answer stating that passages in the Bible should be "taken in context with the times" of the old testament are seemingly dictating to God what is and is not God's commandments. He is unchangeable, from beginning to end. Certainly he should be consulted regarding what is and is not his own commandments. Both in the old and new testaments, the Bible mentions that marriage is only between and man and a women. Additionally, the Bible also states that "mankind shall not lie with man as with a woman." It is plain what this refers to.

Answer 4

Timothy 1: 10 Ephesians 5:3

Answer 5

Romans 1:24-32

Answer 6

The word homosexual is not found in the bible. It never states that marriage is ONLY between a man and a woman.

Answer 7

Depends on which version. Several references, including Romans, were "invented" after the King James Version. A reference to male prostitutes and eunuchs became "homosexual"; I can personally attest to the fact that they are not the same. There were, in fact, no references at all to homosexuality in the New Testament until the New And Improved, modern English versions came out.

Answer 8

There is a difference between purely Jewish law and universal law in the OT. Some of the laws were destined to be characteristic of Jews only and some are universal. (True for all people all time) It doesnt exactly take a Bible scholar to see the differences. Of what we read in the NT, ALL sexual sin is STILL forbidden. That is stated so many times in the NT I fail to see how there is still any debate today over it. Actually I do see, because a number of people are trying to justify their unGodly lifestyles by knowlingly confusing and clouding the Scriptures.

Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. -1 Corinthians 6:10

Answer 9

Leviticus somewhere (book with lots of detailed laws, like what to offer up as sacrifice for what sin, what you can eat, who you can have sex with and how, etc) is one place, I've been told there are several...

I'll take this opportunity to point out, however, that the established institution of the Church likes to require things without Biblical support, or deliberately uses translations to validate their perspective - some branches of the Church use a translation that says Jesus' first miracle was turning water into grape juice instead of into wine (*much* less impressive a miracle, in my perspective! From a modern perspective, that just means he whipped out some Welch's "from concentrate"...) and the RC say you can't be married if you're a priest... whereas the Bible says bishops/deacons have to be "righteous" men, only married ONCE - one woman instead of five, for instance, meaning no harem... Before the RC come after me, I do realize St. Paul said it's better to be wholly devoted to the church and abstain from marriage... he also said that was his opinion and his choice for himself, not that when Jesus appeared to him on the road to Damascus, he said holy men couldn't get married or they'd defile the church... and in the early church, priests *did* marry...

Answer 10

It doesn't. The church in order to make a harmonious society, they emphasized the importance on family and forbade homosexual relationship and promoted the marriage of man and woman. Shakespeare's Merchant of Venice is said to have the information hidden in it.