Do you think that this example is any different from deliberately not eating, cutting or getting blind drunk just to blot out something that has upset you?
2007-03-29 09:18:29 · 16 answers · asked by ************* 4 in Health ➔ Mental Health
well when you put it like that, its no different really!
2007-03-29 09:22:04 · answer #1 · answered by sparky 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hmmm. Interesting question. My knee-jerk reaction is yes, however, whatever you eat is a symptom of what you believe to be the truth about your health. The difference here is to the extent of the symptom. Does the symptom interfer with the person's normal life? Or, is it like eating some kitchen chemical in which you know it is going to hurt you bad?
Is the food a slow way of torturing yourself? Yes, it can be. However, is it on a legal par with those other things you mentioned? No. Not eating is self-starvation, which will attract attention. Cutting yourself will attract attention also, although not in the way you might like. Getting blind drunk is potentially dangerous to other people around you, especially if you drink and drive.
The best thing is to accept that you have a problem, get help for it and then learn to deal with the consequences of your current behavior.
2007-03-29 16:41:36 · answer #2 · answered by Hoolia 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I suppose it does to an extent.
However, my understanding of deliberate self-harm is that it is immediate physical harm, such as cutting, banging, biting etc - this is because it is the direct, desired effect of the behaviour (i.e. it is done with conscious intent) and the pain is immediate. The moment the knife cuts into the skin it causes pain; the moment you hold a cigarette down on your hand it causes pain.
Not eating the right foods constitutes indirect self harm because the harm isn't immediate (with the exception I guess of someone with a severe allergy to nuts eating nuts) as no pain at point of harming. That said, it doesn't mean that a diabetic abusing their insulin isn't self-harming. If the abuse is repetitive then this certainly would be considered self harm.
2007-03-29 16:50:35 · answer #3 · answered by Pickle 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It certainly could be a form of self harm depending on the reasons for doing it.
There could potentially be circumstances under which it wouldn't be self harm, like if you knew that the food would make you sick, but it was all you had available to eat and the alternative was starvation. Like if you've ever read the book Holes, there's a scene where they eat 100 year old canned peaches because they're going to die of dehydration otherwise, so that wouldn't be self harm since it's in their best interest even though it does make them sick.
If you're eating the food *because* you know it will make you sick, then that has a lot in common intentional overdosing or cutting. If you're eating the food *despite* knowing that it will make you sick, because it tastes good or whatever, then it has more in common with excessive drinking or drug use, where it causes significant physical harm which you fail to avoid rather than choosing to induce. Either of those would be a form of self harm.
2007-03-29 16:43:01 · answer #4 · answered by EmilyRose 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No and Yes.. I supose it depends on how long your gonna do it for not that you do it. For example we all over- indulge at times and i dont think that constitutes as self harm in the true sense. Self harm i think is where a person does what potentially causes then harm to release feelings that the person can not cope with any other way at the time and does so for a longer period of time than the odd time you get upset about something.
2007-03-29 16:29:46 · answer #5 · answered by nitenurse 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
As long as I think of what i put into my childs mouth and not harm her through excess sugar, colourings and the evil that i think artificial sweeteners are I couldn't care less really.
It is different in a way. Many people never stand still by what they eat. Self-confessed ignorance is self-harm the way i see things.
2007-03-29 20:58:53 · answer #6 · answered by Part Time Cynic 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think it shows a lack of self control and if it continues on then it is self harm. Does the person do it a few times? then that is lack of self control. If it is a lifestyle then that would be self harm...this is w/ the exception of cutting. I think that can always be considered self harm.
2007-03-29 16:27:07 · answer #7 · answered by 1sweet lady 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Think about your question... eating something that knowingly harms you. SELF HARM. You know its going to hurt you yet you do it anyway... SELF HARM... yes It is the same as cutting to me.
2007-03-29 16:38:06 · answer #8 · answered by Chris 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It could be - I know that eating disorders are often considered a kind of self-harm.
2007-03-29 17:10:54 · answer #9 · answered by Jude 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, I think that eating foods that you know are bad for you constitutes self-harm. Starving and cutting yourself, and getting drunk are all aspects of this also. So also is smoking and abusing legal and illegal drugs. These things all fall under the commandment "You shall not murder." People who do these things need to turn away from these sins and believe in Jesus Christ as their Savior from sin, death, and the devil and believe in Him as their righteousness so that they can go to heaven someday. Everyday we do things that we don't know are sins, so we need to repent of those too. Everyday.
2007-03-29 16:30:31 · answer #10 · answered by Gail S 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
yes its away of taking the focus off pain or hurt and eating bad things is not good for your body so i do think its a form of self harm
2007-03-29 16:27:02 · answer #11 · answered by mudfish 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋