My husband's employer has repeatedly shorted his checks during the year. Can we deduct that underpayment as a business-related expense, or can we deduct it in the "theft/loss" section?
2007-03-28 11:45:46 · 4 answers · asked by gg 7 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ United States
bostonianinmo is 100% right. Your husband is not being taxed on the money he did not get. There is nothing to deduct. I feel for you guys, but the answer is probably a new job. If there are wage and hour violations, you can contact the state employment commission.
2007-03-28 11:51:54 · answer #1 · answered by exirsman 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The first three answers and your questions begs another question. You say he was shorted. Please define that. If he was due $1000 did he only get $800?
What was used to figure his W-2? The $1000 or the $800? If the former then you have an issue and would be paying tax on income never received.
If the latter the prior three answers are correct.
2007-03-30 17:47:31 · answer #2 · answered by zudmelrose 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You already got a "deduction" since those shorted wages were not included on his Form W-2. You cannot claim any additional deduction.
2007-03-28 18:48:48 · answer #3 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No, since he didn't receive it, it wasn't income in the first place. So the shortages can't be deducted.
2007-03-28 19:07:54 · answer #4 · answered by Judy 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋