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This question is for grammar purists only, since obviously 99% of the population doesn't even see the problem.

The phrase "It's me" is short for "It is me" and is grammatically a predicate nominative. This calls for the subjective case to be used in the predicate ("me"). But "me" is objective case; grammatically, it must be "I". Thus this should be written "It is I", or "It's I". This of course sounds hopelessly stupid. No one in their right minds when calling their spouse on the phone would say "It's I", and if you say "It is I", you will of course be made fun of for sounding melodramatic, and rightly so. ("Man of La Mancha" comes to mind.)

The situation has become sufficiently absurd that the only conclusion I can draw is that "It's me" is now standard English, and so I'm curious whether the guardians of the language have acknowledged this as well, and if so, have they come up with an explanation of this (e.g., "This is a predicate nominative postfricative construction")?

2007-03-28 07:49:23 · 6 answers · asked by ? 4 in Society & Culture Languages

6 answers

I'd guess grammar purist (i.e. traditional, prescriptive grammarians) should stick with "It's I."

Descriptive grammarians do consider "It's me" legitimate.

Moreover, I would add that in the phrase "it's I/me" "I" or "me" is actually the object, therefore "me" would be the logically correct choice.

Traditional grammarians have, however, insisted that the nominative case "I" be used in these constructions, claiming an exception to the general rule.




Although I have not checked any sources, I would guess that constructions like "it is me" are so consecrated by usage nowadays, that it would be hard to believe that any modern grammarian should condemn its usage (considering moreover, that it is a more logical form than "it is I".)



As for myself, I do say "it is I," but that is for the fancy of the old fashioned.

2007-03-28 08:17:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

First off, I think the true grammar purist -- by definition -- would never acknowledge the "It's me" as standard English, but certainly in spoken English no one would dare correct someone for saying that. However, I am sure that in a high school or college somewhere, there is a teacher who is trying to do his/her bit and teach the proper form.

I was taught back in elementary school (by nuns) to answer "This is she" when someone asks for me on the phone, and I still do it to this day for force of habit.

In general, I believe that archaic grammar forms should be whipped out for dramatic effect sometimes and also to put people in their places, which is often ineffective since they just think my grammar is bad! Would that the average American were able to understand the put-down! :P

Side note to Mouth: "Me" or "I" is actually not an object in this sentence; it's a subject complement following a linking verb to describe the subject "it", which is why it should be "I"...which is where the whole debate starts! :)
...

2007-03-28 15:41:06 · answer #2 · answered by YoMera 4 · 0 0

It seems to me that "It's I/me" is not a sentence that is likely to come up in situations formal enough to require the unequivocally grammatically correct "It is I." Perhaps that's why the objections raised by the grammar purists among us (I'm not one, but I know enough of grammar to behave like one when the occasion arises (e.g. when I'm teaching English)) against the spurious claims to correctness made by "It's me" have been so few and far between. But make no mistake, spurious indeed they are!

2007-03-28 16:10:20 · answer #3 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 1 0

I think that we could achieve some kind of mid point here and talk in terms of the emphatic "me". I have never heard anyone of English mother tongue say "it is I" when pointing to a photo of him or herself. We always say: "that's me!", however fussy we are about grammar. Likewise, when asked who likes ice cream we'd say: "me!" just as readily as: "I do!" and, as you point out, would refer to ourselves as "me" on the phone. So I would say that the emphatic "me" is standard. Louis XIV's famous saying: "L’État c’est Moi" doesn't seem to have the same ring when grammatically translated to "I am the State" as when ungrammatically rendered as "The State is me!"
However, I put up my hand to saying "it is I" and "these are they" and I'm in good company, for as well as falling in line with fellow grammar purists, I am speaking in the same way as people in East Africa and the Caribbean. I have a feeling that people in West Africa also say "it is I", but not having lived there, I can't say this for certain. It is good to feel that people in some Commonwealth countries, anyway, are keeping the grammatical flag flying!

2007-03-28 15:10:06 · answer #4 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 2 0

"It is I," is correct but it does sound odd, so most people just say, "It's me." Americans hate formality so it would be futile to expect them to use the former term.

2007-03-28 15:00:25 · answer #5 · answered by bombastic 6 · 1 0

You is correct.
Just because someone doesn't speak perfect English, doesn't mean that they don't have a valid point. Relax.

2007-03-28 15:00:02 · answer #6 · answered by MONK 6 · 0 1

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