The Lord came from Sinai and dawned over them from Seir; He shone forth from Mount Paran. (Deuteromony, 33.2)
Doesn't this verse refer to the Prophethood of Moses, Jesus and Muhammad respectively, upon them be peace.
Sinai is the place where the Prophet Moses spoke to God and received the Torah.
Seir, a place in Palestine, is where the Prophet Jesus received Divine Revelation.
Paran is where God manifested Himself to mankind for the last time through His Revelation to the Prophet Muhammad, upon him be peace and blessings.
If you do not know the meaning or intepretation leave it and do not waste My time with answers like
1. Muhammad IS NOT in the Bible (So isnt Jesus in OT)
2. I don't see Muhammads name in there (Neither is Jesus or Moses)
3. Places are Places.....
If this verse is mentioned in YOUR Bible, what is the meaning of it then? Don't run away cos you cant hide for long !
2007-03-28 05:41:04 · 10 answers · asked by The Skeptic 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
My understanding is that Muslims believe the Christian Holy Bible to be corrupt. What, then, would it matter what it said? To Muslims, it would be incorrect.
2007-03-28 05:45:59 · answer #1 · answered by MishMash [I am not one of your fans] 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The problem you get with interpreting Duet 33:2 to refer to Moses by way of Sinai, and Muhammed by way of Paran is that stuck in the middle is the pesty little Mt Seir. If you actually take the time to read the Bible, you will find that Jesus never visited, spoke from or received a revelation at Mt Seir.
Seir is located to the southwest, outside the border of Israel. Jesus ministry was mostly in the northwest of Gallilee (north of modern Israel). He is not recorded as ministering south of Jerusalem. So there is no Bible (or Koran) connection between Jesus and Mt Seir. (Sorry)
As far as Jesus appearing in the Old Testament, his name is only appears 218 times in the King James version of the Old Testament. Muhammed, of course, appears zilch. (You did know that the Old Testament word "Joshua" is the same word as the New Testament word "Jesus")
As far as the meaning of the verse: Get out a map and draw a line from Sinai to Seir to Paran. You will see that it runs from the southwest to the northeast corners of the largest borders Israel has ever had. It is simple a reference that God took the nation of Israel beginning in the southwest at Sinai, through the southern border at Seir, and ending at the northern border of Paran. Historical, this matches with the order of the conquest of the land of Canaan by "God and his ten thousand saints". It refers to his rulership over the whole country.
Note also that Duet 32"2 is a "done deal" - something that had already happened - written in the past tense - over 2000 years before Jesus and almost 3000 years before Muhammed. This is not a prediction of a future event, but a statement of a completed action. Sorry, but the revelation of Muhammed was not a "done deal" at the time of Moses.
When you actually read the scripture in its Bible, historical and geographical contexts, it becomes very difficult to get the interpretation of Muhammed out of it.
2007-03-28 13:05:27 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is how I've read and understood it;
By “Seir” is to be understood the mountain-land of the Edomites, and by “mount Paran” the range which forms the northern boundary of the desert of Sinai (compare Gen_14:6 note). Thus the verse forms a poetical description of the vast arena upon which the glorious manifestation of the Lord in the giving of the covenant took place.
With ten thousands of saints - Render, from amidst ten thousands of holy ones: literally from myriads of holiness, i. e., holy Angels (compare Zec_14:5). God is represented as leaving heaven where He dwells amidst the host of the Angels 1Ki_22:19 and descending in majesty to earth Mic_1:3.
A fiery law - more literally as in the margin, with perhaps an allusion to the pillar of fire Exo_13:21. The word is much disputed.
Hope this helps you.
2007-03-28 12:48:26 · answer #3 · answered by skip1960 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The God and Father of the Lord Jesus Christ, manifests Himself in every generation. His last prophet to the Gentiles was William Branham of America.
The Scripture you give does not "refer" to Moses; it is the final blessing of Moses, by the Spirit of Christ, to the twelve tribes of Israel; the descendants of Abraham through Sarah.
Now what place has Muhammad in this thing; for even none of the descendants of Hagar are buried in the field of Ephron; though you built a Mosque over it. There is therefore no prophetic linage in the mind of God for this Muhammad.
2007-03-28 13:45:36 · answer #4 · answered by Tommy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is mentioned in the Old Testament.
He is the Savior that is to come from the house of David.
Muhammad is a false prophet that the bible warns us all about.
Why would God need to send another Prophet that was killing, having many wives, and doing all of the things that Muslims admit that he did after sending Jesus who lived the perfect example of Love, Peace and Forgiveness? Even if you don't believe that Jesus is the son of God, how can you follow Muhammad after what Jesus did, said and taught us?
It is not so complicated.
Peace and Blessings!
2007-03-28 12:47:57 · answer #5 · answered by C 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Lord and He are singular and is not talking about 3 different people, but 1 person and 3 places in Deut 3:22.....If u read the text carefully. Jesus is mentioned in the NT 983 times in 942 verses. He is not mentioned in the OT because he had not come in the flesh until then. Moses is mentioned 848 times in 784 verses in the OT. Muhammad's name is never mentioned. So your second statement is false.
I only pose one question to u. If u had built a shed in your backyard and someone came and destroyed it.....how much more is God going to be displeased if you harm one of his creation. This idea of Jihad or killing infidels is ridiculous, if you think about it with a rational mind. The idea of killing his creation is ludicrous. God teaches love not hatred. Being forced to believe something or else u will be killed or abandoned by your family doesn't make sense. God doesn't need us, we choose him. He gives us free will to believe...not believe or else. He desires a relationship with us but it is no skin off his back if we don't. We are as dust to him. Pray to God and ask him if Islam is true, and to reveal himself and he will. He waits for us to ask.....that is the kind of God we serve.
God Bless U,
Daniel
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2007-03-28 13:21:59 · answer #6 · answered by Third Day 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in scripture, mountains signify higher states of mind. When ever someone is 'going to the mountain' they are intentionally increasing their spiritual vibration to a higher level. The mount Sinai signifies are specific spiritual vibrational state where the individual (the CHRIST) is in direct communication with God, and is receiving laws, giving thanks, generally communing with the infinite.
2007-03-28 12:51:17 · answer #7 · answered by Fancy That 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your wrong...Jesus is in the Old Testament both as the pre-incarnate Christ as well as in prophetic passages.What Bible are you studying?
2007-03-28 14:55:45 · answer #8 · answered by kitz 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it doesn't. Believe whatever you want but don't rewrite the Bible to attempt to justify a non-existent point.
2007-03-28 12:46:40 · answer #9 · answered by Scott B 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
so you mean....
The Branch Davidians should NOT have beleived in
David Koresh... because he WAS NOT in the Koran?
2007-03-28 12:46:30 · answer #10 · answered by Ron K 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋