I read on this site www.religioustolerance.org that one of the main differences between conservative and liberal christians is that Liberals tend to regard the Bible as a series of somewhat imperfect documents, which individual authors (and later forgers) used to introduce and promote their own competing religious beliefs. They back this up by saying with: 2 Timothy 3:16-17: "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness. That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." (King James Version) The Christian Scriptures (New Testament) did not exist when 2 Timothy was written. So, the passage must have referred to the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament) only. SO my question is 2 Timothy was in the new testement so how was it written before the christian scriptures? I don't get it, am i missing something?
2007-03-28
04:45:28
·
6 answers
·
asked by
Vanessa
2
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality