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There is a prophetic statements in Sahih Muslim about prophet Muhammad who sent his companions to raid a tribe. The companions raided the tribe and captured many women.

The statement tells that the companions refused to have SEX with those enslaved women because those women were married, but prophet Muhammed gave them the permission to HAVE SEX with those women (even if they were already married).

The statement continues and tells that god PRAISED what prophet Muhammad and those companions did and revealed a Quranic verse for prophet Muhammed that says:

"You can not have sex with married women unless they are your property (slaves)" [Al Nisa'a 4:24]

http://quran.al-islam.com/Tafseer/DispTafsser.asp?nType=1&bm=&nSeg=0&l=arb&nSora=4&nAya=24&taf=KATHEER&tashkeel=0

http://hadith.al-islam.com/Display/Display.asp?hnum=2643&doc=1&IMAGE=%DA%D1%D6+%C7%E1%CD%CF%ED%CB

Is it true that prophet Muhammed allow such a horrible action?

2007-03-27 03:50:25 · 8 answers · asked by peace_lover 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

In English:
http://quran.al-islam.com/Targama/DispTargam.asp?nType=1&nSora=4&nAya=24&nSeg=1&l=arb&t=eng

2007-03-27 03:51:16 · update #1

8 answers

To make them holey.

2007-03-27 03:54:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think you are twisting the eposode too much.Woman were made captive, only if they had come of their houses to fight the battle.They were enslaved on the basis of defeat in a bonafide war/battle only.However, if the relatives of those woman, whose relation did not approach with ransom for getting that woman freed, she was assigned to someone to keep her as the slave.If during that period of slavery she could earn something through her skill, she could get herself freed after that payment.Under these circumstances she could be asked for sex but if she was a lost case from his relation,she was made a wife of that particular man if he choses to keep her as maid.If she choses to marry some other muslim she could do that.This had to be done firstly because of the enemies of prophet did with the captive muslim woman, secondly to keep the moral standards of society so that woman do not resort to becoming prostiutes as it happened after the world wars in the recent past.Had Europe acted on Islam the family bondage and permiscosity would not have errupted, at all.During the period of holy prophet of Islam, if some woman desisted to become wife of the muslim to whome she was assigned there was no compulsion.What happened afterwards was done by those people who did not posses the true knowledge of Islam or they created such stories for their justification.

2007-03-27 04:13:26 · answer #2 · answered by shahinsaifullah2006 4 · 0 0

Moses did the same thing, except only virgins.

Hardly a big difference.

And the Bible praises killing babies "Blessed is he who dashes the little ones against the rocks", ripping open pregnant women in battle, raping captive females, sex with minors and pretty much anything else you can think of.

But they didn't like pork.

Or Red Lobster.

2007-03-27 03:55:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

in accordance to the Qur'an and Hadiths, it easily seems that way. i like the later Suras of the Qur'an, that were easily written first. they seem a lot extra non violent and poetic, and just about absent of controversial content textile. that is the Suras interior the front of the Qur'an which examine extra like a "regulations of warfare" guide, and pontificate branch between the God fearing human beings of the international interior the seventh century. from time to time i ask your self if the Qur'an includes purely the memorized dictation of Mohammad, or no matter if different authors contributed to the "very last version" of the Qur'an at the same time as it became finally written down and qualified by technique of Uthman et. al Peace

2016-12-02 21:40:35 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

This is the law of war my friend,everybody knew that and everybody did that.

-If you think a little brilliant guy,you will find that it is not fair to take the women as captives and prevent them from having sex,so it is allowed to have sex with your woman slaves if they converted to Islam,and as they converted,then they are not the wives of the infidels any more.

023.005 And who guard their modesty -
023.006 Save from their wives or the (slaves) that their right hands possess, for then they are not blameworthy,
(QURAN)

2007-03-27 04:02:33 · answer #5 · answered by shockoshocko 3 · 0 0

No, you fool! He would never say such a thing!!! Another thing, you ought to go back and check out that verse because you obviously typed it wrong because that verse doesn't say that.

2007-03-27 03:57:08 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

I am sure he allowed them to marry the women once the husbands were killed.

2007-03-27 04:00:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

as u have written 2 links in arabic , i assume that u read and understand arabic , so read this
من الكفار الذين لا كتاب لهم لا يحل وطؤها بملك اليمين حتى تسلم فما دامت على دينها فهي محرمة
it means u cant have sex unless u merry her

2007-03-27 04:11:41 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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