Has you ever wondered why Mary/Maryam was the only person that bore a child without sexual realtionship?

Question

I have pondered over this question for some time. I really look forward to receive your answers.

It seems that the Holy Bible and the Holy Quran mentioned about it. Why do you think these two great books have a reference to the incident?

And the child that she bore is Jesus/Isa (pbuh). It seems that Jeseu/Isa (pbuh) is the only person that has the weirdest way of getting into this world?

Answer 1

Like... she actually got knocked up the "old fashioned way" and didn't wanna own up to it? Yeah, and she figured "hey, I'll go with virgin birth... it's a time of superstition and ignorance, they'll buy it!"

Answer 2

Jesus was to be sinless, so could not be born of two human parents, because humans had inherited sin through Original Sin from Adam and Eve. Thus, God chose to impregnate Mary through the Holy Spirit, with Jesus receiving the physical body from Mary but the sinless and holy nature from God.

Answer 3

She wasn't. the mummy of John the Baptist additionally had a virgin beginning. As a count of pastime, many Jewish ladies have been having virgin births for the time of that era. while a naive 15 year old fools around with a Roman soldier who believes in gods that, between different issues, fly all the way down to earth and rape women at will, they are able to certainly be confident to tell their mum and dad that's what befell to them while they pop up pregos. Jesus and John, in the event that they existed, could have been area Italian.

Answer 4

Hello,
Mary likely did not have a child without a sexual relationship but she would certainly not be the only one had she lived in the modern world.

Thousands of kids in the United States today are conceived without sex. It's called in-vitro fertilization and embryos are fertilized in a petri dish then implanted into the womb via a syringe. Embryos can also be implanted into surrogate women who bear a child with the genetic profile of the donor parents. Traditional notions of sexuality and virginity would not apply in this scenario.

Answer 5

No. In order for Jesus to be the Savior, he had to not have the fallen "Adamic" nature of man. He could not have had a human father. To say that Jesus was 100% God and 100% human is confusing. It is one of those things that simply cannot be understood by the mortal mind. That is where faith takes over.

Answer 6

The only possible answer is that Jesus is someone OUTSTANDING. The fact that even the Koran shows that, should be a clue even for Muslims, that Jesus is, indeed, the way, the truth and the life, as He Himself stated (John 14:6)

Answer 7

No because the immaculate conception was a miracle--outside the realm of the normal order of events. Why would you expect it to happen at other times?

I don't wonder why other people (besides Moses) don't speak to God on the top of Mount Sinai through a burning bush.

Answer 8

It seems pretty clear, after a little reading and study of the situation.

I could give you an entire Mariology thesis here to explain but I would be bombarded with "thumbs down" and you wouldn't want to read it anyway. If you are genuinely looking for in-depth answers to your question, they are out there to be found.

Answer 9

What about artificial stuff? With implanted fetuses and stuff? Like that one CSI episode... I don't know, it's 11:00, I should be in bed...

Answer 10

Because Jesus was only born on Earth once? No one else is the only begotten Son.

Answer 11

No. It's simple, God caused her to be pregnant without having to have sex. God didn't impregnate her or anything crazy like that, He just caused it to happen. I'll tell you all of the details when I go to heaven.