Your basis is your original purchase price plus, as others have mentioned, any reinvested dividends. It would all be long term gain/loss except for any shares bought in the 12 months before you sold.
2007-03-26 16:43:23
·
answer #1
·
answered by CarVolunteer 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
You should have received a "1099 statement" from your fund manager or from the brokerage house from whom you purchased it. The 1099 spells out short term and long term capital gains as well as any dividend income. An electronic copy of the 1099 is also sent to the IRS. You should take the information on this form and include it with your tax filings. If you haven't received a statement, contact the fund manager and request one.
2007-03-26 09:23:17
·
answer #2
·
answered by Glenn 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
More than likely you are going to need your annual statements from 1999 through 2006. Most mutuel funds have their dividends reinvested back into the fund. If that is the case, you need to add all of the reinvestments to your original purchase price, in order to calculate your profit or loss.
The original date of purchase is used for purposes of the buy date. If some dividends were reinvested in 2006, and then you sold it in 2006, those dividends are not separated. They are all long-term (since you bought and sold the fund beyond one year).
2007-03-26 09:28:22
·
answer #3
·
answered by bold4bs 4
·
0⤊
1⤋
Did you buy in multiple installments?
If not, your long term capital gain is what you sold it for, minus what you paid.
If you did a monthly payment, or multiple payments on it, then you might want to consider using Quicken or Money to compute things. The basic calc is still the same, but you have to separate out the long term and short term stuff.
2007-03-26 13:04:37
·
answer #4
·
answered by Quixotic 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
Subtract your basis form the net sales proceeds. If it's a negative amount, you have a long-term loss. There is no short term loss as you held it more than one year.
2007-03-26 09:13:41
·
answer #5
·
answered by Bostonian In MO 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
you aren't from now on expertise the Bible. In Gen. it tells us that Jesus were given to be the Christ because he became the purely angel that had never sinned! I have lengthy handed by my New testomony and counted over 550 places that state that Jesus isn't God! Like the position Jesus stated: Why do you call me "solid"? i'm no longer solid. purely God is solid.". "how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and potential, and how he went round doing solid and healing all who were lower than the potential of the devil, because God became WITH him." "...you've never heard his voice nor considered his form,...". "For the very artwork that the daddy has given me to end, and which i'm doing, testifies that the daddy has despatched me." that's ideal to obey the Bible, no longer lazy human beings personal needs and needs.
2016-12-02 20:43:49
·
answer #6
·
answered by ? 4
·
0⤊
0⤋