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IT WAS ONE THING AND ONE THING ONLY..SO WHY IS IT THAT THE SCRIPTURES IN MATTHEW, MARK LUKE AND JOHN DO NOT SAY THAT EXACT STATEMENT VER BATIM?

Matt 27:37 "THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS"
Mark 15:26 "THE KING OF THE JEWS"
Luke 23:38 "THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS
John 19:19 "JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS"

WHO WAS RIGHT??

WHO WROTE IT DOWN EXACTLY AS IT WAS WRITTEN??

2007-03-26 09:00:42 · 13 answers · asked by juanes addicion 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

so basically no on has an explanation as to why 4 people could not read the same exact phrase...as it was written

2007-03-26 09:09:02 · update #1

13 answers

Only St. John was actually there at the foot of the Cross. I'll cast my vote for John's being exact

You ever interview 5-6 people who witnessed a traffic accident - - from different angles? It's fascinating how the little things can vary.

2007-03-26 09:09:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

They were all right. Jesus was Jesus Christ of Nazareth The King of the Jews. They are 4 different ways of saying the exact same thing......There are sentences like that even in the English language today..

2007-03-26 09:10:36 · answer #2 · answered by Theresa B 2 · 0 0

how about "This is Jesus of Nazareth, the king of the Jews" . It is possible they only put the words that were most relevant to the people they were writting too. I.e. Matthew the Jews, Mark the Romans, Luke the (i do not remember but belive it was the Greek) and John the world.

2007-03-26 09:05:58 · answer #3 · answered by mkostelnik@sbcglobal.net 2 · 0 0

Um, why am I answering this? This question is a waste of your energy. They all mean substantially the same thing. And who knows -- the different translations probably are more different than one gospel to the next. "King of the Jews" seems to be the heart of the message.

2007-03-26 09:06:18 · answer #4 · answered by rcpeabody1 5 · 1 0

None of them probably have a verbatiun quote as such, since the inscription was written in Greek, Latin, and Hebrew, and the writers simply quoted the general gist of what Pilate was trying to say.

If you are using this argument as a way of getting people to abandon their faith in Christianity, then boy this is weak.

2007-03-26 09:08:32 · answer #5 · answered by Randy G 7 · 2 0

If you ask 4 different authors to write the same story, not a one of them will use the EXACT same words. But, they will all have the same story, and have the same meaning to that story. Just like the gospels that your referring to. Exact words aren't important, but exact meaning is.

2007-03-26 09:07:26 · answer #6 · answered by Underdog 2 · 1 0

Well, its no big deal to me, seems like it all says the same thing just in another way...but I am guessing it might have been written in different languages, by different people and interpreted in different languages by different people.

dab

2007-03-26 09:05:33 · answer #7 · answered by ? 2 · 0 0

It was written in different languages,

2007-03-26 09:07:01 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is what four people witnessed. Four different versions of the same story.

2007-03-26 09:06:39 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because they were making things up that they heard, none of them were actually there, matt was taggin mary magdalene, mark and john were taggin each other, and john was getting tagged by a guard.

2007-03-26 09:06:06 · answer #10 · answered by poseidenneptune 5 · 0 2

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