Why does the Quran allow men to marry child girls?

Question

I heard about prophet Muhammed marrying a 9 year old child girl and I thought it might be just a historical dilemma.

However, I found a verse in the Quran that gave me the impression that Islam really allows men to marry girls who have not attained puberty yet. The verse [4] from Al Talak [65] states that:

"and for those of your wives who stopped having their monthly period, they can not get married for three months after you divorce them. And for those who HAS NOT ATTINED PUBERTY YET it is the same".

Here is the verse, along with its original Arabic interpretation:
http://quran.al-islam.com/tafseer/dispta...

Unfortunately I tried to look for Yusuf Ali's translation for that verse and I found it is not accurate and therefore you should not refer to it when answering my question, which is:

Why does Islam allow men to marry child girls who have not attained puberty yet?

This link is working
http://quran.al-islam.com/Tafseer/DispTafsser.asp?l=arb&taf=KATHEER&nType=1&nSora=65&nAya=4

Answer 1

this is simply not true

but I have to congratulate you that you changed your tactic and now the link comes with the question the only problem is that the link is PAGE NOT FOUND

DUH

way to go boy 5 answers on a non existing web page

Answer 2

You might want to look at Arkansas then. Several of the US states have an age of consent which I think is unconscionably low and could certainly be prepubescent.

Don't get me wrong - I am not defending Islam. But you should be aware that this happens elsewhere too, and in the secular world.

I don't know how to interpret the English translation of that passage as the language is overly poetic and obscures the meaning. Would someone please post a link for a commentary?

Better still, a link for an everyday English translation.

Answer 3

Actually.. the Yusuf Ali translation is widely regarded as the most accurate, so whatever you are getting your translation from is probably not accurate.

[65.4] And (as for) those of your women who have despaired of menstruation, if you have a doubt, their prescribed time shall be three months, and of those too who have not had their courses; and (as for) the pregnant women, their prescribed time is that they lay down their burden; and whoever is careful of (his duty to) Allah He will make easy for him his affair.

EDIT: Also, remind me why again you never have a link written in English so everyone can understand it?

Answer 4

I was told it was due to the need of reproducing and making a nation. Look at the Islamic couples today....lots of children....Its as if biblical times said it was okay to marry have kids and when she can't produce anymore...to marry a young one that can.... thus letting the old one get divorced and marry someone else so that you want have half siblings running around...okay...that's just my wicked interpertation....I know it was bad :(

Answer 5

Middle East, Deep South or Catholic Church, any place where religion is literally translated will usually end up in a child getting molested by some older holy man.

Answer 6

Because many say on this site that any religion can dictate thier own rules rather than obeying the Ten Commandments and Christ's teachings...

Answer 7

"Such of your women as have passed the age of monthly courses, for them the prescribed period, if ye have any doubts, is three months, and for those who have no courses (it is the same): for those who carry (life within their wombs), their period is until they deliver their burdens: and for those who fear Allah, He will make their path easy. "

It is talking about women who have PASSED menstruation. The verses are talking about divorce.

Answer 8

The Quran allows pretty much evrything except eating at Corky's.

Answer 9

Bong hits 4 Islam.

Answer 10

Watch out! Muslims will report you if they don't like the question. Just happened to me, and it was a "valid" question.