How Can Jesus be God in view of Jesus words at Matthew 24:36....?

Question

When asked a question Jesus says there:
- "But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only."
- King James Version

Jesus here says that the Father knows more than the Son does. If Jesus were part of Almighty God, however, wouldn't he know the same facts as his Father?
Doesn't this show that the Son and the Father cannot be equal?
Also, what about the holy spirit? If it is part of the same God as the Father, why does Jesus not say that it knows what the Father knows?

My question is about this scripture only. In other words if you believe that they are the same or co-equal how do you explain this scripture please?

Please read the question - I asked you how you explain THIS scripture at Matthew 24:36

Thank you for your answer Suzanne - Jesus was asked the question & stated that only his Father knew the answer. This scripture clearly shows that Jesus did not know the answer "but my Father.only."

Thank you Pix for your answer but you didn't really answer my question about Matthew 24:36 -
How could Jesus not know what the Father knew if he was God himself?
He would know exactly the same things that his Father knew - but he didn't - as his words in verse 36 clearly show.

Thank you rude 4 U for giving me your viewpoint on the scripture.
However, I do not think you answered the question - much of what you presented is based on supposition.
The actual greek words used in Phil 2:6 show the opposite to what you believe. Check out some different translations of the scriptures.
Far from saying that Jesus thought it was appropriate to be equal to God, the Greek of Philippians 2:6, when read objectively, shows just the opposite, that Jesus did not think it was appropriate.
You also say "I think Jesus actually knew the year (70 AD) when Jerusalem would be destroyed by the Romans, because it was 40 years after his crucifixion and forty is a significant number in the Bible. But he chose not to know the day or hour; that was best in order to avoid being questioned further." -
This is also supposition.
It doesn't matter what WE think - Jesus words at Matthew 24:36 clearly show that Jesus did NOT know.

James the less -
You say - "How could the Son die for our sins if He didn't become a man and live as a man?"
Jesus did come lived as a man & died our sins - that's true.... but how does that answer my question about the scripture? - It doesn't answer it.
And your comment about the rest of the bible testifying to Jesus deity is false as this isn't the only scripture that proves Jesus & God are both separate personalities.
So far, no one who believes in the Trinity has been able to provide a satisfactory answer to this question. That's because it has to be looked at openly & not with the preconceived idea that Jesus is God himself. It's a bit like atheists who discard the idea of God before they examine all the evidence.
Jesus is clearly a separate personality to his Father - otherwise he would have known what his Father knew. He says in verse 36 that "only the Father" knows.

Suzanne - you need to read the answer from 'lover of Bible truth' - many translations say also "neither the Son" so of course Jesus was talking about himself.
They asked Jesus the question & he stated that nobody knew the answer - ONLY the Father.
Even many Trinitarians acknowledge that Jesus was talking about himself here.

James the less -
There are many scriptures that disprove the Trinity.... so it's impossible for you to quote the whole Bible to support your false Trinitarian doctrine.
I didn't ask about other scriptures - I asked about THIS scripture
-Matthew 24:36
You still haven't answered my question...
How could Jesus not know what his Father knew?
You say it's an easy question - but you still haven't answered my specific question about this scripture

Answer 1

I'm sorry but you will not get a straight answer from anybody explaining how this scripture fits into the idea of Jesus being the same as god, the same goes for many other scriptures which blatantly contradict the teaching of a trinity. You will get a lot of other 'proof texts' pointed out, however with a little reasoning, context and proper translation from the original languages it is easy to see what these scriptures are really saying. Take the famous John 1:1 for instance which plainly says that Jesus is god, analyse it in the original greek and see that this is just an incorrect translation or 1 John 5:7,8 which is a well documented later addition.

The holy spirit is completely left out in many scriptures which supposedly support the trinity, and from a proper examination of all the mentions of the holy spirit, it can be seen that it is not sentient but rather a force.

^-^

Answer 2

When reading the Bible, it is important to know who is being spoken to. In passages on the subjects that my article covers, my belief is that the non-believers are the ones addressed. Many Christians have interpreted these verses to be the "Bible teaching" regarding everyone. It is important that I prove my belief, as any mistake made in interpreting who is referred to in those verses could make one have a significantly different interpretation of the nature of the Second Coming.

Matthew 24:36 is the first verse I will look at. This verse says, "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, but My Father only." The way the verse is written shows that it is a fact at the time when Jesus said His words, and clearly it is also a prophecy as to how it will be later. Verse 39 indicates that people will only know the time of the Second Coming once it happens, so even if verse 36 means that literally no one can know the hour, people will eventually know the hour. My belief on the meaning of Matthew 24:36 is quite different to that of the few other Bahá'ís whose interpretation of this verse I know, in that I think that the verse is addressing the world in general, or the non-believers. The others believe that the verse applies to literally everyone, and they claim that it speaks of the day and hour, but that it doesn't say anything about the year. So the claim is that the exact time can't be known, but the year can. I myself supported this argument until I had read the Bible through more. From looking at all the relevant texts, there is no reason to believe that the verse means that the precise time can't be known, but the year can. The word "day" is often used in reference to a new age, and it refers more to time than the specific 24-hour day in which the age commenced. Mark 13:33 proves conclusively that "day" and "hour" should not be literally interpreted in Matthew 24:36, saying, "Take heed, watch and pray; for you do not know when the time is." So it is clear that the year is also included in Matthew 24:36.

Answer 3

The King James translators omitted part of that verse in order to support their false trinity doctine.
Over 12 translations, including the NIV and ASV render it correctly which is
"But of that day and hour knoweth no one, not even the angels of heaven, neither the Son, but the Father only."

Even though the King James translators tried to justify the trinity by omitting words, it didn't work. The verse still says that only the Father knows.
If Jesus were God he would know all things.

Answer 4

It's simple, Jesus never claimed to be God but claimed to represent God on earth like all other Prophets did. Due to his performance of miracles and him being born without an earthly father the people years later could not accept these as mere miracle which God had done to prove his Prophethood but had to take it a step. In fact the mainstream belief that Jesus is God only became mainstream much later and the first Christians were no trinitarians.

At the council of Nicea around 325AD Constantine, the ruler of "Constantinople" accepted Christianity and ordered a commision to debate which brand of Christianity, trinitarian or those who believe Jesus was a Prophet(unitarian) would be adopted as the official faith. The unitarians were "outvoted" and their beliefs were wiped out. This is historical information and anyone who wants to know about it should just research council of Nicea.

This is why God had reveal another scripture to restore the pure monotheistic belief in Only One God which Adam, Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Ismail, Jacob, Joseph, David, Moses, Jesus came to teach. It is because man always corrupts his belief that God has to continue to send messengers to bring mankind back to the right path.

Consider this. Adam was created without father or mother, even more miraculous than without just a father, but we do not call him God. This example was revealed in the Quran to make people consider their beliefs and question themselves truthfully.

For more details visit - http://www.allahsquran.com/all_about_the_quran.php

Answer 5

You'll get a lot of different perspectives, if for no other reason because even people who agree have a hard time phrasing the explanation.

Primarily, the key is to try to understand that Jesus, God the Father and the Holy Spirit are ALL God but that they also have separate personalities and rolls.

When Jesus was on the earth he was 'fully man' and had limited knowledge and abilities. The purpose of this is so that he could live a sinless life as a man to be able to redeem creation from Satan after Adam lost it. A man lost it, so a man needed to reclaim it. Jesus had to be a man.

Answer 6

Matthew 24 concerns what will happen leading up to the second coming. The crucifixion, resurrection and assention will have taken place and it will be up to God the Father, when Jesus returns to earth again.

Answer 7

Hi
I think I can answer this question for you. First, lets look at a scripture, this is from Philippians ch 2 vs5-8:

Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus: Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death--even death on a cross!

Just one more thing! Are you familiar with the term omnipresent? It means that God is everywhere, but in spirit of course.

When God himself became the direct father of a human child, conceived by the holy spirit, God became incarnate, he and the human being became as one. However, since God is omnipresent, he still filled the universe; God you see is not limited by time or space.

But what this scripture tells us is that God incarnate, Jesus Christ, chose voluntarily to restrict his power. He "made himself nothing, being found in human likeness". God himself experienced fully what it's like to be a human being. He has experienced all of our troubles, trials, worries, fears, he has even experienced what it's like to die.

So of course, while Jesus lived on earth as a human being, he was not equal to God, because he chose not to be. But since Jesus went to heaven, he is now, once again, equal with God the father.

I think Jesus actually knew the year (70 AD) when Jerusalem would be destroyed by the Romans, because it was 40 years after his crucifixion and forty is a significant number in the Bible. But he chose not to know the day or hour; that was best in order to avoid being questioned further.

Oh yes, the holy spirit. At the time that Jesus spoke, Christianity didn't exist. Israel was still God's holy nation and the old covenant was still in operation. People at that time knew about the coming Messiah, but they didn't understand. If they had done, they wouldn't have killed the son of God, would they? The Jews just didn't recognise him, Jesus didn't fit in with their preconceived views of what the Messiah would be like. And so,. Jesus therefore didn't mention much about the holy spirit, if he had done then they would have been even more confused than they were already.

Does this answer your question?

Answer 8

And tell me....where does Jesus say He doesn't know? He only states neither humans nor the angels know. You're the one who's concluded He won't know and you've put words into His mouth that He never spoke. Since Jesus is God the Father in the flesh, it's obvious He knows. However, He will not return until directed by the Father.

EDIT: I've read your follow-up comments; it appears you cannot see Jesus clearly wasn't talking about Himself there. If He was, why didn't He say "But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no not the angels of heaven, **nor I,** but My Father only?" If He had said that, it would be conclusive. Again -- JESUS IS GOD IN THE FLESH, BUT HE IS ALSO FULLY GOD, so you cannot simply call Him a "man."

Answer 9

Jesus is the fullness of the Godhead bodily, and he is the Word made flesh, and the Word was with God and the Word was God, that I know.

As for that verse, there are three in the "Godhead", but they work in different ways, this was just one of them. The Father and the Son are equal. As for the Holy Spirit, when you're born again, you're baptised with the Holy Spirit and He guides you into all truth.

Repent, believe and receive and you shall be saved, by God's grace, through faith.

God bless you

Answer 10

Yes it is easy to explain. In Jn 14:10 we read "Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own initiative, but the Father abiding in me does His works".

Jesus is saying that although He and the Father are one, co-equal, co-existent He would only reveal things as His Father in Him spoke them. Thus, remember that Jesus was fully man and fully God. So here He his referring to His human knowledge as opposed to His divine knowledge 'hence the use of the term Son of Man'. The time had not yet come for this to be revealed but we are given signs as to when this will happen in Mark 13. Clearly Jesus knows the 'day and the hour' for all judgement has been entrusted to Him Rm: 14:10.


Also Suzanne is incorrect to state Jesus did not say he did not know ,as the verse goes on to state neither the Son but the Father. Jesus is refering to his humanity as oppossed to his divinity as evidenced by the next verse where he compares the Son of Man being like a man who left his home and went on journey. We know from Philippians 2:5ff that Jesus left heaven and came ot the earth and in so doing emptied Himself of His standing with God. Thus taking on humanity alongside his divinty - the doctrine of hypostatic union.