Some told me - he had a workman's comp case. Then was issued Social Security and given 100% Disability. Under the Disability, he is not entitled to Medicare for 2 years.
It makes no sense to me that if someone was on Disability, they could not get health insurance for 2 years... He claims all his medical expenses are coming out of his pocket.
Could this be correct?
2007-03-26 04:15:54 · 2 answers · asked by bforever23 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Insurance
It CAN be correct, as likely the workers comp insurance carrier paid him a lump sum intended to cover his medical expenses related to this injury, for the next 2 years.
The 'system' is set up to prevent double dipping. If he got both medicare (welfare health insurance) and workers comp medical, that's double dipping. He's likely forgetting that the comp carrier paid, or is paying, medical.
2007-03-26 05:27:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unfortunately, this is true. For some reason the government feels you need to be permanently disabled for 2 yrs first. If he is disabled due to workman's comp though he may still have recourse with them for treatment of the injury related to workman's comp atleast.
2007-03-26 11:43:11 · answer #2 · answered by Mom of 2 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋