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We have only had the house for 1 year. We are separating. He wants me to sign a quit claim deed. I haven't made any payments towards the house. If we sell the house and there is a profit. Am i entitled to any of it?

2007-03-25 16:40:53 · 5 answers · asked by mistym 1 in Business & Finance Renting & Real Estate

5 answers

Do morals or ethics have anything to do with this? If you haven't paid anything, but had agreed to, in writing or not, he could sue you for what you owe, then deduct that from any "share" of the profit that you might have. If that exceeds the profit, you could owe him money.

You are part owner in the house. 1/2 owner if only two of you are owners in equal shares; but whether you should take advantage of this or not is up to whether you think you actually deserve that, and whether you have upheld your share of the bargain.

Money often makes honest people THIEVES.

2007-03-25 16:52:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I defiantly think it is better to be on the deed than on the loan. On the loan would leave you responsible for 1/2 of the loan, being on the deed means you owe 1/2 of the house. Yes, you could share in the house's profit and he cannot sell it without you signing the papers.

2007-03-25 16:46:12 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Borrow some money and pay as much into the house as he did. Only then are you entitled to claim half the profit from selling the house. Morally speaking that is.

2007-03-25 17:06:14 · answer #3 · answered by Zack 4 · 1 0

i'm in the U. S., yet i've got self belief that is especially lots an identical. whilst the valuables is bought, any liens and taxes that are superb would be paid first. something left over would be paid out to the vendors on the guaranty deed. The own loan has no longer something to do with who gets the money, as quickly as the own loan agency is paid. you won't be in a position to be removed from a private loan. the guy who desires to maintain the own loan could would desire to refinance it in his call purely. regardless of if she by no capacity paid a penny on the situation, she's an proprietor. If her call is on the guaranty deed (you may call it something else, grant deed, call...) then she would be entitled to a share of any earnings from the sale of the valuables.

2016-12-08 11:19:41 · answer #4 · answered by gandarilla 4 · 0 0

if you are on the deed, you are considered a part owner. If he gets you to do a quit claim deed taking your name off... you are no longer a owner of the home.

In order to sell the house now, he has to have your signature...

Usually owners are entitled to the monetary value after the mortgage is paid off in full. No owner, no money... part owner, part money....

2007-03-25 16:46:56 · answer #5 · answered by Steffi 3 · 0 0

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