No, it's called free will. Even if I give him money for booze, it is still his fault as he chose to buy it and drink it. After the age of 18, we are all accountable for our own behavior.
2007-03-25 13:24:12
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answer #1
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answered by Kiss My Shaz 7
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No, they said to buy food. So you gave them money for that purpose. But, 1) They lied about it and got themselves killed so you aren't guilty, and 2) Once the money is theirs, they decide what to do with it - whether to spend it wisely or not. In that case, the bum was stupid with the money, broke the law driving drunk, and paid for it! The money doesn't matter in this case, I guess. ;)
2007-03-25 20:32:45
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answer #2
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answered by mtngrl 6
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If a man works for a living and spends his money on alcohol and is then killed in an alcohol related incident, is it employer's fault? Of course not.
Blame starts with the individual who commits an act, not with others who have come into contact with him.
2007-03-25 20:27:50
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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No, you would not be guilty of any crime. You gave them the money in GOOD FAITH that they were going to buy some food with it. You didn't give them a ride to the package store and you didn't buy the booze for him/her. So there isn't any way possible that you could be guilty of any crime.
2007-03-25 20:26:27
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answer #4
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answered by GRUMPY 7
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No more than if their employer would be if they worked for a living and blew their paycheck on booze.
2007-03-25 21:54:22
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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No, you did the good deed, he did the bad deed, he alone is responsible for his fate.
2007-03-25 20:26:24
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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No, you are just guilty of being gullible.
2007-03-25 20:26:46
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answer #7
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answered by Andrew 6
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I don't give cash but I do give food.
2007-03-25 20:25:31
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answer #8
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answered by angelofgothic 6
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no, i did my good deed. it was his choice to go get drunk.
2007-03-25 20:25:07
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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No.
2007-03-25 20:44:50
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answer #10
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answered by Anry 7
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