Should British govt compensate them .How? and Why?
2007-03-25 06:22:28 · 25 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
If they WERE a slave, perhaps they should be compensated. If it was their great great great grandparents, then no. The idea is ridiculous.
2007-03-25 06:24:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 2⤋
Of course not. What direct consequence have they to the slave trade? People will argue that the legacy of the slave trade has left millions poor and forgotten and in turn made African countries unable to look after themselves.
Can I, a white Anglo-Saxon gain compensation from the French Government for the deeds of King William I (The Conqueror) on my ancestors? Can I also claim compensation from the Italians for the deeds of the Romans?
I see this as another occassion where all white people will be reminded how ashamed of themselves they should be, no doubt by the Govt and the BBC
2007-03-25 06:39:44 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
Yes....But, I believe the "actual" source should be held responsible and pay.
With that said. If you look at the "actual source" (the dealer), it was their own countrymen that enslaved many people.
How compensation should be given? Since many of these said "dealers in human flesh" have no actual assets, other than the family goat farm. Seize it. Now the person that takes possession will have to pay their own way to said property (after all I wasn't responsible so I shouldn't kick in a dime)....oh and the VAST majority of said property is in Africa and other middle-eastern countries. I say we set time limits to move and take possession, otherwise it reverts back to the "current heir of said slave trader/hunter"
Why....Cuz I'm tired of hearing certain WORTHLESS creatures of this planet shout to the world, that their entire future and their future heirs have been ruined by people that allowed their great great great grandparents to live, rather than killing them during a tribal raid.
......To a man who has nothing, a dollar is a fortune...To the man who has everything, nothing is enough.
2007-03-25 06:44:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
As it was not this particular government, and those claiming compensation were not personally slaves, it is not the government's responsibility to compensate victims of something that didn't affect them personally.
That's like phoning your best friend's insurance company and claiming repairs to a car your grandfather crashed 30 years ago.
2007-03-25 06:35:09 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Ummm, if your talking about blacks living in the UK (and US) as a result of their ancestors being a part of the slave trade, my answer is no! What would/ could it possibly solve, besides minor debts. If every descendant of every enslaved african who was sent into a 'Western' nation to work was given reparations, these nations may very possibly go bankrupt or suffer major adverse economic effects, at the very least. It's a symbolic gesture at best, nothing more. So, no... no reparations, no compensation.
2007-03-25 06:33:21 · answer #5 · answered by klg2k2002 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If anyone should give money to families of former slaves it in fact should be from the african nations from which they came because they were sold into slavery by their own people. However I personally think that it would be an outrage because blacks were not the only people to be used for slave labor the Irish, The chineses, as well as others were also used for slave labor. So then it would be that alot of people would be due money I am of Irish decent and my family has been here since the 1600's and though I know many of my family were treated in such way I do not feel owed anything by anyone.
2007-03-25 06:31:52 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
I wasn't aware the British had participated in any slave trading recently. I thought it was abolished 200 years ago. Anyone who was a slave at that time has surely died.
Suggesting that decendants of those slaves should be given reparations is absurd. Just as I have no right to expect reparations from the decendants of anyone who may have harmed my great-great-grandfather.
The suggestion is ridiculous.
2007-03-25 06:26:35 · answer #7 · answered by Yep! 4 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Here is the don-ting question? By whom would they be paid.
Not me as I never owned slaved.
This would be a legal nightmare as finding records, etc is not practical.
Slavery ended and each slave was given property at that time, so they have already received reparations.
Secondly, now they are the most protected and entitlement specie on the planet.
...so enough is enough.
...by the way history show numerous accounts of slavery of different various groups. Maybe blacks wanting reparations may have 500 years ago in slaved one of my relatives...
...this is the very reason there is a thing called
"statue of limitation".
.....colored people, Negro, black people,African American
GET O ver it!
2007-03-25 06:36:11 · answer #8 · answered by Rada S 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
No. Because we would be paying someone, who has hardly suffered (when was slave trade abolished..?) and at the end of the day it's tax payers money. I'm not asking for compensation just because my great great grandfather fought in WW2, eh?
2007-03-25 06:27:51 · answer #9 · answered by little_friend 3 · 3⤊ 1⤋
How the hell will they compensate former slaves? They are all deceased! At the time of emancipation it would have been proper, however they are now several decades too late.
2007-03-25 06:36:01 · answer #10 · answered by The Man In The Box 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It should have been done right after the laws changed. Now? It's not only too late but ludicrous. We are so in debt as a nation if China asks for her money back...we don't have it. How scary is that?
What about all the time that's passed and how pure are the families in their bloodlines--probably pretty much diluted and gone.
2007-03-25 06:29:30 · answer #11 · answered by Live, Love and Laugh 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋