Causes of World War Two: Appeasement and Chamberlain?

Question

What did Chamberlain do to try and stop World War Two. What did he do with Germany to stop the war. Did he succeed or fail. Did this have anything to do with Appeasement???

Answer 1

Chamberlain and Hitler signed the Munich Agreement after Hitler invaded the Saar Region of Czechoslovakia to "liberate" the German population there. The Agreement said that Hitler could have the Saar Region if he ceased to demand for more land.

He failed of course because Hitler later invade Poland. : (

Appeasement is when you comply out of fear. So this could and couldn't be a form of appeasement. It could be appeasement because Chamberlain let Hitler have the Saar Region, but it is not appeasement in the sense that the Munich Agreement was signed, and an effort was made to stop Hitler.

Answer 2

The Keynes book is indeed great, but does not by itself explain the causes of WWII. The treaty of Versailles was a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for WWII. It insured that there would be massive instability in Germany, but it certainly did not determine the precise nature of the government that would exploit this instability. And even if it did, once Hitler came to power there were plently of opportunities to avoid war, or at least the war that happened. Had Chamberlain and the French not sold out Czechoslovakia, there would have been a war in 1938 between Germany on one side and the UK, France, Czechoslovakia and the Soviet Union on the other, and Hitler would have been stopped. But instead Hitler got Czechoslovakia, and Stalin gave up on the idea of collective action against Hitler. Resigning himself to the idea that the Soviet Union would eventually have to face Germany alone, he decided to buy as much time as he could by dealing with Hitler rather than the west.

Answer 3

it can not be categorised an instantaneous rationalization for the conflict. historic, financial, political, and private motives assured there could be some variety of blow out. What it did replaced into help shape the character of the conflict in that each and anybody 3 Axis powers (Japan, Germany, and Italy) went to conflict at concerning an identical time. Appeasement delays the conflict so as that each and anybody the undesirable adult adult males have been waiting at sort of an identical time. the final case for not using appeasement could have been some thing like this. the european powers confront Italy over Ethiopia by way of economic sanctions. Italy's fragile economic device crumple and Mussolini is thrown out. submit to in techniques, he wasn't absolute ruler. Italy nevertheless had a king who ought to hearth Mussolini (and did in 1943) and the army replaced into rather unswerving to the monarchy. Mussolini additionally had many competitors in his very own faction that theory he replaced into going off the deep end. Even in its weakened state, Britain ought to end off any Italian military reaction certainly. Italy imported maximum of its steel for weapons from Britain. the autumn of Mussolini might leave Germany devoid of any considerable best pal in Europe. that could liberate extensive factors the British and French does not ought to devote to the Mediterranean. additionally, anti-appeasement meant the British and French might confront Hitler in 1938 of Czechoslovakia which had a protection treaty with the U.S.. Hitler needed a conflict. So, Hitler might face a 2 front conflict from the outset. undesirable odds. That left Japan on all its very own to stand finished military and economic might of a the U. S. and the united kingdom all by way of itself. devoid of appeasement, the allies might have performed a divide and triumph over approach.

Answer 4

Oh please... The only cause of World War II was that Germany was pillaged by the Allies at the end of World War I. Read "The Economic Consequences of the Peace" by J.M. Keynes. Note how much his recommendations of what was to be done in 1919 resemble what was actually done in 1946...