is parkinson a autosomal or sexl linked disease, also is it a dominant or recessive disease?

Answer 1

Most cases of Parkinson disease are idiopathic or caused by injury to the brain, whether traumatic or toxic. However, genetic cases have been mapped to many genes. For a list of these, check out the link:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parkinson%27s_disease

The list is located about midway down the page.

Answer 2

There are multiple causes of Parkinson's disease although gene susceptibility is among them. There are also environmental factors. Parkinson's disease is not thought to be a homogeneous disease. They thinks that certain cases may have some genetic causes but not all cases. In the middle eastern population, a defect in the gene that affects the amount of phosphate in the brain seems to be the culprit. Sometimes a mutation of a different gene is seen, but in all cases the substantia nigra is affected. The death of these cells also occurs in individuals who do not seem to carry any genetic linkages. Viral infections and toxins are also some causes. For example, certain subjects trying to get high off synthesized Meperidine developed Parkinson's because their product was polluted by MPTP, an industrial toxin mistakenly produced along with the drug.

Answer 3

Actually, it really isn't either of the two. Although it is more likely that someone who has a parent with parkinsons will be affected by it, it isn't passed down genetically and it isn't linked to either males or females. I thought it was an interesting question so i looked it up in one of my textbooks. i'm no expert, but in a nutshell the book said that anyone can get it at anytime and it's origin is unknown. people are more likely to develop parkinsons in their 40's and 50's and it progresses with age. hope that helps

Answer 4

There is a Familial Form of this, I Think it is Polygenic.