Both Sanskrit and Latin are descended from a common language, called Proto-Indo-European, which predates writing, so we don't actually have any records of it. However, one can reconstruct PIE by positing regular sound change in its 'daughter' languages, like Latin, Sanskrit, Avestan, Hittite, Greek, and reconstructions of Germanic, Slavic, Celtic, and Baltic parent languages.
English, incidentally, is in the Germanic family, although it has many, many Latin and French borrowings in vocabulary.
Compare Sanskrit
'asmi, asi, asti, smah, stha, santi'
to Latin
'sum, es, est, sumus, estis, sunt'
and you can start to get an idea of the similarities and how it would be possible to go back a step further and propose a conjugation that gave rise to those two.
2007-03-24 07:14:36
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answer #1
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answered by Doc Occam 7
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OK, English didn't come from Latin, although a lot of Latin words have been borrowed into English, either directly or through French. And Tamil and Malayalam didn't come from Sanskrit, although Hindi, Bengali, etc have largely developed from it, and again many words have been borrowed from Sanskrit or Sanskrit-derived languages into Tamil/Malayalam.
Old English, Latin and Sanskrit have all evolved from a language usually called Indo-European, spoken at a time before wiriting, but which we can reconstruct. Many other languages, like Russian, Greek, Welsh, Farsi, also came from the same root.
Tamil and Malayalam, on the other hand, are also from a common source, and are known as memebers of the Dravidian language family.
It may be that all languages are ultimately descended from one common language, or it may be that language developed separately in different places. It happened too far back for us to have enough evidence to say (although plenty of people have tried).
Hope this helps!
2007-03-24 08:04:43
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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English actually came from the fusion of Anglo-Saxon with Norman French (which was derived in turn from Latin and Germanic roots). Also, I am fairly sure that many of the languages of Southern India do not have a Sanskrit root. Rather Sanskrit influenced these languages during eras of Northern political and religious hegemony. At any rate, Latin and Sanskrit came from a common language family called Indo-European. Since we do not have written evidence of what this language looked like, philologists can only speculate as to what it looked like. Also, it is pretty much impossible to figure out where Indo-European itself came from. Other languages related to Latin and Sanskrit are Avestan (old Persian), ancient Greek and Hittite.
2007-03-24 07:15:59
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answer #3
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answered by z 2
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The Sanskrit language first emerged around 2,000 to 1,000 B.C.E. (before the common era). It's one of the oldest languages still in existence, and linguists have grouped it with the Indo-European languages, such as French, German, and English, which may share a common ancestor language. It isn't entirely clear where Sankrit originated, but it probably came from the Indus Valley, in what is now Pakistan and northwestern India.
Latin came in around 900 BC in the area of Latium
2007-03-24 07:19:38
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answer #4
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answered by Corndolly 3
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Latin was influenced by the Celtic dialects and the non-Indo-European Etruscan language of northern Italy.
Sanskrit, as defined by Pāṇini, had evolved out of the earlier "Vedic" form, and scholars often distinguish Vedic Sanskrit and Classical or "Paninian" Sanskrit as separate dialects
2007-03-24 07:13:24
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answer #5
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answered by Splishy 7
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English did not come from Latin. Where did you get such an idea? English is a Germanic language. It simply has a lot of Norman French influences and vocabulary and has been enriched by contacts with other languages.
2007-03-24 07:13:43
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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contained in the very earliest days people lived by utilising looking and collecting. It did no longer take long before small aspects have been picked clean of secure to eat plant life, and hunted till it became stressful to locate animals for nutrition. To get around this occasion, small communities would commute many many miles to locate unhunted land. those small communities grew into fairly large settlements. the ought to save transferring became now no longer there by way of fact people have been gaining expertise of to enhance plant life and raise animals. communique became non-existant so language from one team to the different drifted farther and farther aside. After an exceptionally long term the speech of one team grew to grow to be a language no longer understood by utilising different communities. to renowned the way languages choose the flow aside, think of England English and American English. We want one pronunciation they yet another. We use a notice like truck. they want lorry. Now think of what the adaptation would be if there became no radio, no television, no traveling, no connection with one yet another for many 1000's of years. the adaptation would be large. that almost befell while Rhineland Germans got here to Pennsylvania in the time of the very early years. there became little connection with the mummy us of a. The languages of the two communities drifted sufficient that now a genuine German would have an exceptionally complicated time speaking with a Pa. Dutchman.
2016-10-01 10:26:53
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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i think the spoken language and the written must be treated seperately, for instance inuit language was verbal only but the written language is related to pitman shorthand, a quite recent development in terms of history.
2007-03-24 07:17:38
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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they all came from grunts and snorts around the fire ring. the taming of fire is considered the greatest help in people socializing and thus needing to find a way to tell what happened during the day.
2007-03-24 07:19:16
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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from thin air
2007-03-24 07:09:33
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answer #10
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answered by *YAWN* 3
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