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Am finding this hard to understand, If england was invaded in 1066, and ever since then the invaders refused to leave , who then are the Illegal migrants

2007-03-24 04:36:29 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Immigration

Does that mean that the illegal migrant could refuse to return to where they came from ,since its being the pattern for centuries?

2007-03-24 05:25:54 · update #1

I understand that there are people who actually think Immigration law should be obeyed, for me its a laughable impossibility.
This same people are the very ones who would have said 200years ago that Black Africans are peroperty and thus the law regarding treating them as such sould be obeyed.

As a hard core left winger , it is crazy for anybody to obey laws which suppresses another human being in what ever form it is being disguised.......slavery, Immigration, Racism, etc

2007-03-24 06:05:38 · update #2

15 answers

You have to understand the difference between INVASIONS into our island, eg, by the Romans-Saxons-Vikings etc. and ILLEGAL IMMIGRANTS entering a modern Britain in breach of our immigration rules.

The former were uninvited conquering armies, but became consolidated hundreds of years ago to form what we now regard as indigenous Britain's. Following 1066, there were no major flows of immigrants until the early 1950's onward.

There are those on the 'left' who keep trying to argue that because we experienced invasions hundreds of years ago, that that somehow justifies the continuation large scale immigration into modern Britain hundreds of years later. An utterly ridiculous argument.

2007-03-24 05:50:57 · answer #1 · answered by Veritas 7 · 2 3

Julius Caesar and his Roman legions invaded southern Britain in fifty 5 and fifty 4 BCE. recent-day England became gradually settled by utilising Angles, Saxons, and Jutes in the time of the 5th and 6th centuries CE, yet historians debate no remember if this qualifies as an invasion. Danish Vikings conquered Northumbria, Mercia, and East Anglia contained in the ninth century CE, efficiently dividing England into the territory controlled by utilising the dominion of Wessex and the Danelaw. In September 1066. Harold III of Norway invaded Northern England, yet became consequently defeated by utilising the English King, Harold Godwin, who in turn had to march his military from Yorkshire to the coast of the English Channel to stand against William of Normandy on 28 September 1066.

2016-10-01 10:20:42 · answer #2 · answered by vyky 4 · 0 0

You can go all the way back to 55 A.D. on this one, when the Romans invaded. 1066 was the invasion of William the Conqueror, a Norman French who had some Viking blood. The bloodlines of the modern day Brit are so mixed that if you made all the descendants of the Normans leave, there would be very few people in the "Island Race" left.

2007-03-30 13:17:26 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Would you like to go back to the first human, or the first one that had thought of knowing what he was planning? Or back to the beginning of time, or the universe? People sometime have to give up on what happened for claim a couple hundred years ago and go on with what happening today.

Yet in any country that has something to give, there are people that come that country illegal and work. making them illegal migrants. And this you can track to the last few years.

2007-03-31 15:56:53 · answer #4 · answered by allen w 7 · 0 0

This is an interesting question which raises a lot of issues. I suppose it depends on how long you have lived here i.e if your an illegal immigrant and you have a child who was born here are they legally British citizens? Recently the home office tried to deport a grandma back to the US as her parents came here illegally when she was 3 months old! Her children and grandchildren wern't even an issue, they allowed her to stay though (thank goodness)

2007-03-25 09:50:44 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This question does specifically refer to the UK - so any persons entering those parts of the British Isles now comprising the UK before the Act of Union cannot be accused of illegally entering the UK (because it didn't exist...) So we are looking at people who came in who shouldn't have within the last 300 years.

2007-03-24 11:44:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think you know the answer to your question. You are just posting this to try to stir up trouble. I presume that you are not one of the tax payers who are paying for the illegal immigrants?

2007-03-25 22:18:52 · answer #7 · answered by Copper 4 · 0 0

At present time there is racism and discrimination in every
country on this earth.

2007-03-29 09:06:05 · answer #8 · answered by Yourhighness 1 · 0 0

thanks for your hate speech quetion...typical...
an illegal immigrant is someone who looks like me but wants to have a race with you,and smells like roses, and whispers to you like an angel.
slips in with da bredrin..cookis cookis coookisssssss
the bible said moses loved dem.jingle bells jingle bells
they are not happy with their country,and think dis is ssoft touch

2007-03-25 04:40:15 · answer #9 · answered by meditation and mango juice 4 · 0 0

Well....

England was celtic, then saxon, then norman.

All of europe was 'celtic' or very similar first anyway. This term is very broad.

2007-03-24 04:49:26 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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