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2007-03-23 23:05:56 · 3 answers · asked by reggaetonchica 1 in Society & Culture Languages

3 answers

I would guess it's a reference to commonly spoken Latin versus the more ornate, flowerly language of speeches and orators. That is, the Latin spoken by the people in the streets, including curses, contractions, euphemisms, and slang. The comedic plays of Plautus are famous(infamous?) for using vulgar(which means common, not obscene) Latin. Although at times, the language of the plays ARE obscene!!

2007-03-24 01:23:05 · answer #1 · answered by quazqlyo 2 · 2 0

Either Vulgar Latin (a long time ago) or it may refer to spoken Spanish in Central and South Amrica.

2007-03-23 23:18:47 · answer #2 · answered by JJ 7 · 1 1

i don't know what it is but,try to research.

2007-03-23 23:15:47 · answer #3 · answered by grahamcrackers, i can answer q&a 1 · 0 1

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