The Greek of Matthew does not read like a mere translation, but such a widespread tradition (with no early dissent) must have some factual basis. Tradition says that Matthew preached for fifteen years in Palestine and then left to evangelize in foreign parts.
It is possible that about 45 AD he left behind for the Jews who had accepted Jesus as their Messiah, a first draft of his Gospel in Aramaic (or just the discourses of Christ), and later made a Greek edition for universal use.
A similar thing was done by Matthew's contemporary, Josephus. This Jewish historian made an Aramaic first draft of his Jewish Wars and then the final form of the book in Greek.
2007-03-23 12:44:16
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answer #1
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answered by Ask Mr. Religion 6
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Since I am currently reading the Gospel of Matthew in its original language, I can say it was written in Greek, as well as the entire New Testament.
2007-03-23 12:46:57
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answer #2
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answered by Stephen M 2
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Good question. The earliest manuscripts are in Greek. But since the Gospel was written to a Jewish demographic - it is believed by some that it was perhaps written in the Hebrew language. I see no evidence for it, however.
Until we have proof - - scholarship says "Greek".
2007-03-23 12:13:55
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Greek became the drastically used language of that factor and place. And there does look data that Matthew were initially written in Hebrew, because of the fact it became directed in direction of the early Jewish-backgrounded believers. yet, because of the fact the church straight away unfold previous the instantaneous aspects of language and subculture, of course it went into the greater easy language...Greek! you're splendid that God isn't the author of bewilderment...i will see you're at a loss for words some few issues. First, the crucifixion extremely befell. You look to doubt because of the fact of a few meant variations interior the Gospel narrations. Leaving issues out? i think the single that inspired the writers chosen to no longer repeat Himself. and you comprehend you could in basic terms pass on what has been written, no longer on what has no longer been written. i'm short on time, so i visit close with this- the council in 325 A.D. did no longer be certain what to have confidence, did no longer "make" the doctrines up... the purpose became to be certain the doctrines that ALREADY have been, the doctrines that have been of course taught by ability of scripture, and held in easy by ability of each of the non-heretical believers. there have been heretics then, and there at the instant are. do no longer you think of an ALMIGHTY GOD can shelter His notice and its which ability for a trifling 2000+ years? i do no longer have confidence he's the single that is at a loss for words.
2016-10-01 09:36:37
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answer #4
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answered by durrell 4
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Greek because it was the most common language in both spoken and written form.
The are also known as the Christian Greek Scriptures.
2007-03-23 12:14:45
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answer #5
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answered by Here I Am 7
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Aramaic, that was the language the evangelist used, before Greek took the limelight as the official language being used by the early christian writers.
2007-03-23 12:16:42
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answer #6
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answered by Happyman 2
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Greek. Compliments of Alexander the Great, most of the known world at that time spoke ancient Greek.
2007-03-23 12:13:26
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answer #7
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answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7
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Greek. The Septuagint Bible or the New Testament was written in Greek.
Peace!
2007-03-23 12:41:02
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Keone Greek
2007-03-23 12:15:51
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Koine (common) Greek. It was often thought that this was a Holy Ghost Lanaguage that Only God used. But we now know that it was just a common vernacular of people of that era.
2007-03-23 14:06:26
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answer #10
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answered by studentofword84 3
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