2007-03-23 12:01:24 · 10 answers · asked by U-98 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Egyptian apparently, which is kind of funny as he was supposedly raised as one.
2007-03-23 12:04:02 · answer #1 · answered by Praetorian 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Moses would have stammered in any language he tried to speak; stammering is an equal-opportunity handicap!
Moses probably spoke ancient Egyptian, as well as Hebrew/Aramaic. He seemed to be able to communicate very well with Egyptians, Hebrew slaves, and Arabic Nomads, so apparantly his grasp of the various area languages was good. Being raised in a priveleged house would have afforded Moses a very good education, however, no amount of education will "cure" stammering.
2007-03-23 19:11:05 · answer #2 · answered by MamaBear 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Moses stammered in Hebrew, not Latin which is native to the region of Rome Italy.
2007-03-23 19:11:00 · answer #3 · answered by Lukusmcain// 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The NASB translates that as slow to speak. In other words, he wasn't the most eloquent person, and probably thought of what would have been a great thing to say after the fact, type of thing.
2007-03-23 19:07:39 · answer #4 · answered by Caryn 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Korean
2007-03-23 19:05:20 · answer #5 · answered by USAF, Retired 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Maybe Arabic or Hebrew. Good question.
2007-03-23 19:07:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
possibly Hebrew but luckily actions speak louder than words.
2007-03-23 19:05:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Caveman- uga uga
2007-03-23 19:09:40 · answer #8 · answered by Harry P. Ness 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
according to my hermenutics teacher in Bible college, it is aramaic
2007-03-23 19:14:22 · answer #9 · answered by mskae 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ebonics. : )
2007-03-23 19:05:19 · answer #10 · answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋