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2007-03-23 03:13:16 · 14 answers · asked by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus didn't need to die for our sins in the first place. In the Jewish tradition - people were already able to ask forgiveness straight from God. There was no rift, no seperation. God was always there. So, the idea of God having to sacrifice himself in order to save his own people is a completely foriegn idea to Jewish people. Strange - since Judaism is used as the basis for Christianity.
Just another faux premise in Christianity. One of numerouse problems a person will find if they decide they really want to know the truth.
2007-03-23 03:21:58 · answer #1 · answered by noncrazed 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
The English language was not invented until the 9th century.
Fortunately, the New Testament was written in Greek, a language which did exist at the time of Jesus. In there it states that he died for our "hamartia", which is the Greek word that means "sins".
2007-03-23 10:19:14 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
All "words" are man-made. The word "sin" in English may have a 9th century origin, but the concept is much older. There are other words than the English "sin" to represent "transgression". Do you really think that the Jews had no such word?
2007-03-23 10:21:00 · answer #3 · answered by Deirdre H 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
In the Holy Bible, John 1:1 said "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God".
The word "beginning" means even before the Earth existed.
2007-03-23 10:19:32 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
You mean the spoken word or the written word?
Regardless....about 2000 years ago, God visited this planet in the form of man to die and rise again...so that we could have access to the Father....and go to heaven.
2007-03-23 10:17:07 · answer #5 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Moses wrote the first books of the Bible which was centuries before that. Where are you getting your information?
2007-03-23 10:21:16 · answer #6 · answered by G.W. loves winter! 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
You can translate and retranslate the word "hamartia" but it's been with us always and it is sin. Whatever semantic game you're trying to play is really silly.
2007-03-23 10:21:43 · answer #7 · answered by cmw 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
"Missing the mark" will land us in hell, and the Bible gives us many examples of "missing the mark". The term you use for it is irrelevant. You still need to define what "missing the mark" is, which the Bible does.
2007-03-23 10:20:50 · answer #8 · answered by rgtheisen2003 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Mmmmm, it's the thought that counts? =0)
2007-03-23 10:17:39 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
lol good one. i wonder what word they did use. I bet some guy just made it up in the bible like 90% of the other stuff in it.
2007-03-23 10:16:51 · answer #10 · answered by Nothing interesting 3 · 2⤊ 2⤋