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2007-03-23 01:54:34 · 8 answers · asked by Paris Hilton 6 in Travel United States Los Angeles

TGIF Guys...

2007-03-23 01:55:46 · update #1

Sheeeesch...I was hoping here to initiate a roundtable discussion of the missionization of AltaCalifornia by the Franciscan missionaries, but I see that may have to wait for another day, or until copestir shows up...Well TGIF anyway...Yeh, not only was the learning of Spanish required but also conversion to Catholicism. copestir knows all that mission/pueblo/presidio system stuff..

2007-03-23 08:06:23 · update #2

8 answers

Paris;

I think that your question was misunderstood. You were referring to the period in California history when the Spanish instituted their roughly 60 year "experiment" to civilize the indigenous peoples of the area, and turn them in to "good little Spaniards" because of their fear of encroachment into land they claimed by the English and the Russians.

The answers you were getting seemed to be from those who were thinking more of California's history after English customs and culture became commonplace.

You are correct that the Franciscans mandate from Spain was to convert the local natives into loyal Spaniards. In most cases their methods of forcing Spanish language, customs, culture, and religion on the Indians, while at the same time looking down on them as inferior to the true Spanish born, and treating them like slaves is what caused their efforts to fail. Good question though. I'll give you a star.

2007-03-23 11:48:58 · answer #1 · answered by Peedlepup 7 · 1 0

Brother Cain as a fellow mason I ought to consider your angle. Allow me to inspire you to run for the institution board. Ask your brethren to do the identical! The inn was in the vanguard of the management of the countries schooling approach. It is approximately time that we step up and count on that birthright as soon as once more. This will most of the time get frowned upon through many men and women and may also get a contravention however the fact isn't anybody's personal purview to pick what used to be truly and what used to be no longer. As a retired disabled Electrical Contractor who speaks Spanish, German, and a few Russian, I additionally don't have any trouble with studying different languages to be used in touring different nations. Anyone who's forcing it to permit others to damage our legislation are assisting and abetting a fourth measure legal and must be charged. Edit: Most of the men and women who learn your query ignored your factor fully. When men and women holiday the regulation it's fallacious. The institution approach helps men and women holiday our legislation and ought to be held dependable.

2016-09-05 12:54:43 · answer #2 · answered by piekarski 4 · 0 0

Before the USA came and took it from Mexico, yes... But as US state... I would argue it was more the other way around. They was passed a law making it illegal to speak Spanish in public schools.... Then several years later the supreme court called it unconstitutional. a border state that is constantly more and more globalized tries to do this?!?!?! Crazy...

2007-03-23 02:04:24 · answer #3 · answered by COOLQF 2 · 0 1

before southern Cali became northern Mexico I doubt it but now you aren't required by law but it sure would make life easier

2007-03-23 02:34:59 · answer #4 · answered by Heather 3 · 1 1

that is so not true...in the old days they didnt have to know spansh unless they were actually spanish. barley any americans knew spanish....thus leading to that they didnt have to know spanish so that they could live in california!

2007-03-23 01:59:20 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

That's not the 'old' days that's the 'new' days!

2007-03-23 01:57:36 · answer #6 · answered by Floppy Dick 2 · 2 2

required? NO

2007-03-23 05:40:11 · answer #7 · answered by Salsa 3 · 0 2

no comprende

2007-03-23 06:20:20 · answer #8 · answered by chieromancer 6 · 0 2

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