Does Jesus have a God? I am ascending to my Father, to my God. ?

Question

John 20:17, RS: “Jesus said to her [Mary Magdalene], ‘Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”

John 1:18 No man has seen God at anytime.
Was John saying that Jesus was not God?
We know Jesus was the word. In the begining the word was with God. How could the word be with God and be God?

1 Pet. 1:3, RS: “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ!” (Repeatedly, even following Jesus’ ascension to heaven, the Scriptures refer to the Father as “the God” of Jesus Christ. At John 20:17, following Jesus’ resurrection, he himself spoke of the Father as “my God.” Later, when in heaven, as recorded at Revelation 3:12, he again used the same expression. But never in the Bible is the Father reported to refer to the Son as “my God,” nor does either the Father or the Son refer to the holy spirit as “my God.”)

Answer 1

"You alone, Jehovah, are the God above all other gods in supreme charge of all the earth." (Psalms 83:18)

"Who Is “the Only True God?",

is the name of an article that explains via the Scriptures about Christ's relationship to his Father :

"Who Is “the Only True God?"
- Jesus' Position in Heaven
- Name of the Lamb and of the Father
- The Trinity---Whose Teaching?
- The Father---Superior to the Son
- The Trinity and the church
- The Trinity's Early Origins
http://www.watchtower.org/library/g/2005/4/22/article_02.htm

Yes, Jesus made it clear that he worships his Father.
He is at the right hand of God
--in the most favored position of--
not - God himself.
He died ... but, God cannot die.
If he had been God, the value of his sacrifice would have been SUPERABUNDANTLY over that required to ransom mankind.
He was seen by many humans, but no man can see God & live.

In response to the comment about the existence of many gods ...

Is There Only One True God?
- Figments of the Imagination
- Jesus, the Angels, and the Devil http://www.watchtower.org/e/200602b/article_01.htm

Answer 2

Jesus has not yet ascended and therefore he still has not assumed his position as the second person of the Holy Trinity. Here is a commentary from the NAB to the verse.

17] Stop holding on to me: see Matthew 28:9, where the women take hold of his feet. I have not yet ascended: for John and many of the New Testament writers, the ascension in the theological sense of going to the Father to be glorified took place with the resurrection as one action. This scene in John dramatizes such an understanding, for by Easter night Jesus is glorified and can give the Spirit. Therefore his ascension takes place immediately after he has talked to Mary. In such a view, the ascension after forty days described in Acts 1:1-11 would be simply a termination of earthly appearances or, perhaps better, an introduction to the conferral of the Spirit upon the early church, modeled on Elisha's being able to have a (double) share in the spirit of Elijah if he saw him being taken up (same verb as ascending) into heaven (2 Kings 2:9-12). To my Father and your Father, to my God and your God: this echoes Ruth 1:16: "Your people shall be my people, and your God my God." The Father of Jesus will now become the Father of the disciples because, once ascended, Jesus can give them the Spirit that comes from the Father and they can be reborn as God's children (John 3:5). That is why he calls them my brothers.

Grace and peace!

Answer 3

Yes. John 20:17 shows that Jesus and God are 2 different persons. At John 17:3, Jesus called his Father the only true God. At Col. 1:3, it says: "We thank God the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ." So Jesus has a God. And they are not equals. At 1 Cor. 11:3, it says that the head of the Christ is God. With this being said, how can anyone believe in the trinity?

Answer 4

At the beginning of this very gospel of which you speak are these words:

1:1. In the beginning was the Word: and the Word was with God: and the Word was God.
1:2. The same was in the beginning with God.
1:3. All things were made by him: and without him was made nothing that was made.
1:4. In him was life: and the life was the light of men.
1:5. And the light shineth in darkness: and the darkness did not comprehend it.

Answer 5

Jesus was God in the flesh.
Read John 8:58
John 10:30
Genesis 1:1
John 1:14
John 17:5

Answer 6

LineDancer> Jesus said theres one god and one God only... So why does God say "do not worship no other God then me"?
Im a Christian, i guess theres another Q that could be answered lol

Answer 7

John 20:17
Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. (KJV)

This verse is one of the strongest proofs in the Bible that there is no Trinity. This event occurred after the resurrection, and Jesus said to Mary that he was ascending to “my God, and your God.” Jesus’ statement makes it clear that “God” is both his God and Mary’s God. If Jesus is God, he cannot have a God, for by definition if someone has a “God,” he cannot be “God.” If Jesus had a “God” as he said, then he cannot be part of that God. This is especially clear in this verse, because he and Mary have the same God. If he were God, then he would have been Mary’s God, too. He would not have said that he was going up to her God, because “her God,” i.e., Jesus himself, was standing right there. One of the most recognized principles of Bible interpretation, and one that is accepted by conservative scholars from all denominations, is that to be properly understood, the Bible must be read in a literal, “normal,” or “standard” way, i.e., the words of the Word should be understood the way we understand them in everyday speech, unless figurative language is demanded by the context. Everyone understands the phrase, “my God.” Christ used it both before and after his resurrection. He called to “my God” when he was on the Cross. He told Mary he was going to ascend to “my God.” He spoke of “my God” to both the churches of Sardis and Philadelphia (Rev. 3:2 and 12). It is hard to see how Jesus can be assumed to be co-equal and co-eternal with God when he calls Him, “my God.” The Bible simply means what it says in this verse: God is indeed both our God and Jesus’ God.

To answer your ? in the additional details that you added...I am answering...sorry this is so long...but it is important to explain scripture.
John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV)

1. As it is written in the KJV, there is no Trinitarian inference in the verse.

2. There are versions such as the NIV and NASB, however, that are translated from a different textual family than the King James Version, and they read “God” instead of “Son.”

NIV: “No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father’s side, has made him known.”

NASB: “No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.”

The NIV and NASB represent theologians who believe that the original text read “ho monogenes theos” = “the unique, or only begotten God,” while the KJV is representative of theologians who believe that the original text was “ho monogenes huios” = “the only begotten Son.” The Greek texts vary, but there are good reasons for believing that the original reading is represented in versions such as the KJV. Although it is true that the earliest Greek manuscripts contain the reading “theos,” every one of those texts is of the Alexandrian text type. Virtually every other reading of the other textual traditions, including the Western, Byzantine, Caesarean and secondary Alexandrian texts, read huios, “Son.” The two famous textual scholars, Westcott and Hort, known for their defense of the Alexandrian text type, consider John 1:18 to be one of the few places in the New Testament where it is not correct.

A large number of the Church Fathers, such as Irenaeus, Clement and Tertullian, quoted the verse with “Son,” and not “God.” This is especially weighty when one considers that Tertullian argued aggressively for the incarnation and is credited with being the one who developed the concept of “one God in three persons.” If Tertullian had had a text that read “God” in John 1:18, he certainly would have quoted it, but instead he always quoted texts that read “Son.”

It is difficult to conceive of what “only begotten God” would have meant in the Jewish culture. There is no use of the phrase anywhere else in the Bible. In contrast, the phrase “only begotten Son” is used three other times by John (3:16 and 18; 1 John 4:9 - KJV). To a Jew, any reference to a “unique God” would have usually referred to the Father. Although the Jews of John’s day would have had a problem with “only begotten God,” Christians of the second century and beyond, with their increasingly paradoxical understanding of Christology and the nature of God, would have been much more easily able to accept such a doctrine.

The reason that the text was changed from “Son” to “God” was to provide “extra evidence” for the existence of the Trinity. By the second century, an intense debate about whether or not Jesus was God raged in Alexandria, Egypt, the place where all the texts that read “God” originated. The stakes were high in these debates, and excommunication, banishment or worse could be the lot of the “loser.” Changing a text or two to in order to “help” in a debate was a tactic proven to have occurred. An examination of all the evidence shows that it is probable that “the only begotten son” is the original reading of John 1:18. For a much more detailed accounting of why the word “Son” should be favored over the word “God,” see The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture, by Bart Ehrman (Oxford University Press, New York, 1993, pp. 78-82).

3. Even if the original text reads “God” and not “Son,” that still does not prove the Trinity. The word “God” has a wider application in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek than it does in English. It can be used of men who have divine authority (See John 10:33 and Heb. 1:8). There is no “Trinitarian Formula” in this verse that forces a Trinitarian interpretation.

Answer 8

Does Jesus have a God? Yes.

I can't explain it better than how you've explained it. God does not have a God. "My Father and your Father, my God and your God." Two different beings, Jesus and God. Jesus was a Messenger, a man, but not God.

'Nuff said.

Answer 9

He is the son of God, He came in the flesh, It says it through out the words, there is no one greater than he who sent me !

Answer 10

Jesus is the son of God the Almighty....