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Bible makes me think women are second class, do you think its really from a loving God?

2007-03-22 18:39:45 · 30 answers · asked by hwdfoo 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

30 answers

Religious women are second class because it's god's will.
Atheist women are first class because it's their will.

2007-03-22 18:46:03 · answer #1 · answered by valcus43 6 · 3 7

Yes, it is from a loving God. Women are not "second class", just as men are not "first class" Indeed, as times change, and people stray from God there will always be those who mis-read the Bible. In the first context, one must first understand the history of those times of the New Testament and Paul's writings. Back then, as the early Christian churches were first getting started, woman sat opposite men in the pews, even away from their sons, husbands, fathers, etc. It only meant that women are to stay quiet, as if they talked to the men, even if they had a question, they were in turn being rude and interupting, and yelling across the room. In any society, yelling across the room would be considered rude. Paul, in essence, was saying that if women (or men) had questions, to hold the questions until after the service, maybe even until after back at home. WAit until the preacher is done preaching.

No, woman are not second class. Woman work with men, as men work with Jesus. Men and woman are equals in the church!

God bless!

2007-03-22 19:42:11 · answer #2 · answered by marvin_reesman 1 · 0 0

Paul's letters were written to many different congregations and addressed issues pertinent to those particular congregations. Corinth was a very sexually immoral city at that time with women on the street corners teaching and speaking and then engaging in sexual acts. This created huge problems in the Corinthian church because in teaching within the church they resembled those outside of the church. People heard of these women teaching in the church and thought it was the same ones from the streets. To avoid any confusion Paul tell that in that church women should remain silent. He never tells any other church that command. This is where having a historical context adds much to the reading and interpretation of scripture.

2007-03-22 22:14:03 · answer #3 · answered by Kuulio 3 · 0 0

You must understand the culture when this was written, and who Paul is speaking to and why.

God is a God of order.

1 Cor:14;26-40, is speaking about order in Church meetings. If tongues and prophecy are being talked about or spoken, women are not to interrupt and ask questions at the time this is taking place.

She should wait until she is at home to ask her husband questions. It does not mean she cannot speak in Church as an absolute command.

2007-03-22 18:56:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Because if you'll read the rest of the Bible, rather than that one verse you'd understand that the women in the church being referred to were gossips and trouble makers. That rule was for that church, not all women everywhere. They were told by Paul to be quiet, (by Paul, not by God) because of the trouble they were creating.

2007-03-22 18:50:32 · answer #5 · answered by disciple 1 · 1 0

From 1 Corinthians (ESV Translation)

1Co 14:34 the women should keep silent in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be in submission, as the Law also says.
1Co 14:35 If there is anything they desire to learn, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church.

The instructions which Paul is giving to the Corinthian saints do not apply to them alone. These are the same instructions that have been addressed to all the churches of the saints. The uniform testimony of the NT is that while women have many valuable ministries, it is not given to them to have a public ministry to the whole church. They are entrusted with the unspeakably important work of the home and of raising children. But they are not allowed to speak publicly in the assembly. Theirs is to be a place of submission to the man. This rule is positive, explicit, and universal. There is no ambiguity in the expressions; and there can be no difference of opinion, one would suppose, in regard to their meaning.

The expression as the law also says has reference to the woman's being submissive to the man. This is clearly taught in the law, which here probably means the Pentateuch primarily. Gen_3:16, for instance, says “your desire shall be for your husband. And he shall rule over you.”

It is often contended that what Paul is forbidding in this verse is for the women to chatter or gossip while the service is going on. However, such an interpretation is not supportable. The word here translated speak (laleo) did not mean to chatter in Koine Greek. The same word is used of God in verse 21 of this chapter, and in Heb_1:1. It means to speak authoritatively.

14:35 Indeed, women are not permitted to ask questions publicly in the church. If they want to learn something, they should ask their own husbands at home. Some women might try to evade the previous prohibition against speaking by asking questions. It is possible to teach by the simple act of questioning others. So this verse closes any such loophole or objection.

There is, therefore, no inconsistency between the argument in 1 Cor. 11: and the statement here; and the force of the whole is, that on every consideration it was improper, and to be expressly prohibited, for women to conduct the devotions of the church. It does not refer to those only who claimed to be inspired, but to all; it does not refer merely to acts of public preaching, but to all acts of speaking, or even asking questions, when the church is assembled for public worship.

No rule in the New Testament is more positive than this; and however plausible may be the reasons which may be urged for disregarding it, and for suffering women to take part in conducting public worship, yet the authority of the apostle Paul is positive, and his meaning cannot be mistaken; compare 1Ti_2:11-12.

If it is asked how this applies to an unmarried woman or a widow, the answer is that the Scriptures do not try to take up each individual case, but merely set forth general principles. If a woman does not have a husband, she could ask her father, her brother, or one of the elders of the church. Actually, this may be translated, “Let them ask their men-folks at home.” The basic rule to be remembered is that it is shameful for women to speak in church.

14:36 Apparently the Apostle Paul realized that his teaching here would cause considerable contention. How right he was! To meet any arguments, he uses irony in verse 36 by asking: Or did the word of God come originally from you? Or was it you only that it reached? In other words, if the Corinthians professed to know more about these matters than the apostle, he would ask them if they, as a church, produced the word of God, or if they were the only ones who had received it. By their attitude they seemed to set themselves up as an official authority on these matters. But the facts are that no church originated the word of God, and no church has exclusive rights to it.

14:37 In connection with all the foregoing instructions, the apostle here emphasizes that they are not his own ideas or interpretations, but that they are the commandments of the Lord, and any man who is a prophet of the Lord or who is truly spiritual will acknowledge that that is the case. This verse is a sufficient answer to those who insist that some of Paul's teachings, especially those concerning women, reflected his own prejudices. These matters are not Paul's private view; they are the commandments of the Lord.

2007-03-22 18:57:54 · answer #6 · answered by Ask Mr. Religion 6 · 0 0

First of all, women are not second class. Second I find it quite obvious that you don't know the meaning of that verse. No offense intended !
If I may be so bold as to ask a question, I would like to know why you feel the need to antagonize people.

2007-03-22 18:45:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

All this means is that women can't be pastors--not because they are inferior to men, but because God has designed them differently and for other duties (this does NOT mean just cooking, cleaning, and having babies). It is like when Paul says women ought not not to wear gold jewelry and braids. During his time, those were signs of prostitution, but today they are fine. It is the spirit in which these things are done that truly matters.

2007-03-22 18:49:30 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

well if one treats a woman in that fashion all that can mean is, he is sexist , has a little wienie and is uneducated! I look at Islam sometimes-my God why don't these women take a frying pan to their men's gonads - I would! I am so glad I am not living my life according to christian or Islams fanatics! yuk - look at the Vatican -now there is a old boys club if I've ever seen one! no women there either! oh well - life goes on!

2007-03-22 18:53:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

The Bible never says women are second class...and even Jesus was given an authority figure to submit to (Pontius Pilate). We should be focused on the heirarchy in heaven, not on earth!

(Also, Paul talks about women prophesying in church in the same letter...so understanding such statements in their proper context is important)

2007-03-22 18:43:25 · answer #10 · answered by whitehorse456 5 · 5 2

If you read the Bible ,you would know that.
Men sat on one side of the church and women on the other.
The women where told to not yell across the room and ask her husband a question.Also to keep the children silent.
God is a loving God to HIS children.<><

2007-03-22 18:48:47 · answer #11 · answered by funnana 6 · 1 2

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